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PORTAGE LEARNING NURS 231 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION

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PORTAGE LEARNING NURS 231 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION 1) Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful circumstances. True or false Exam 1 - answer false 2) hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. True or false Exam 1 - answer true 3) which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply Exam 1 it is involved in cellular respiration they are found far from the site of energy consumption they play a role in apoptosis they control free radicals - answer it is involved in cellular respiration They play a role in apoptosis 4) which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply Exam 1 controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within 2 )the main structural component is made of proteins helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation - answer controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within 5) Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis Exam 1 - answer dry gangrene occurs when blood supply is slowly reduced to an area. The area is dehydrated and becomes dark or black in color. Commonly seen in patients with diabetes. It is not very painful, but tissues eventually die. 6) Wet gangrene is caused by a sudden reduction in blood flow. The area is cold and swollen, with no pulse. This can occur from trauma. Bacteria is involved and is very painful. It has the appearance of pus, because it looks wet. There is also a foul smell cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True or false Exam 2 - answer false answer: cell differentiation 7) cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. True or false Exam 2 - answer false, answer: cell proliferation 8) what are two important properties that stem cells possess Exam 2 - answer potency and self-renewal 9) these are cells of the same lineage that have not yet differentiated to the extent that they have lost their ability to divide Exam 2 - answer progenitor or parent cells 10) is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites Exam 2 - answer 11) the profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as Exam 2 - answer cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome 12) explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders - answer there are about 80 autoimmune disorders identified, with many overlapping presentations. Blood tests can be more generic and results are imprecise. Markers can be elevated in the presecence of other diseases 13) the t cells that display the host's mhc antigens and t-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed negative selection True or false Ezam 3 - answer false 14) which lab value will typically be increased in a viral infection Exam 3 neutrophils eosinophils basophils lymphocytes - answer lymphocytes 15) a 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) what symptoms might he present with? (2) does the quantity of exposure mean he will have a more severe reaction? (3) what is the initial immediate treatment? (4) what are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always carry? Exam 3 - answer 1) shortness of breath, skin redness/hives, gi discomfort such as cramping, nausea. 2) no epinephrine identification of the allergy and epipen 16) a 23-year-old african-american man with a history of severe lifelong anemia requiring many transfusions has nonhealing leg ulcers and recurrent periods of abdominal and chest pain. These signs and symptoms are most likely to be associated with which one of the following laboratory abnormalities? Exam 4 sickle cells on peripheral blood smear loss of intrinsic factor decreased erythropoietin decreased ferritin - answer sickle cells on peripheral blood smear 17) which of the following is not true of vitamin b12 deficiency anemia? Exam 4 dietary deficiencies are not common peripheral neuropathy can be a result of deficiency vitamin b12 is bound to intrinsic factor mcv is decreased - answer mcv is decreased 18) each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except: Exam 4 obesity diabetes mellitus high cholesterol diet autosomal dominant disorder of ldl receptor - answer autosomal dominant disorder of ldl receptor 19) risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except hdl 60 smoking hypertension family history of heart disease - answer hdl 60 20) is the transfer of gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries Exam 5 - answer diffusion 21) each of the following can lead to atelectasis except: Exam 5 pleural effusion tumor mass thrombus mucous plug - answer thrombus 22) a 10-year-old boy who is having an acute asthma attack is brought to the er. He is observed to be sitting up and struggling to breathe. His breathing is accompanied by use of accessory muscles, a weak cough, and audible wheezing sounds. His pulse is rapid and weak, and both heart and breath sounds are distant on auscultation. His parents relate that his asthma began to worsen after he developed a "cold," and now he doesn't get relief from his albuterol inhaler. Explain the changes in physiologic function underlying his signs and symptoms. Exam 5 - answer in most asthma patients the airway inflammation due to a cold virus causes epithelial injury. This severe airway inflammation means that the patient is probably suffering from bronchial hyper responsiveness, which causes airway obstruction and narrowing 23) oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the pns T/f - make true if false - answer false, oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the cns 24) someone in the early stages of alzheimer's disease requires assistance for their activities of daily living. T/f - make true if false - answer false, in the early stages of alzheimer's disease, individuals are still independent with their adls. 25) a 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department via ambulance at 5 pm. The patient's spouse reports that when they woke up (approximately at 6 am) he reported to her that he was having some blurred vision but decided to go about his day. As the day progressed, he started experiencing tingling and feelings of weakness on the entire left side of his body. He has a past medical history of diabetes. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment - answer patient was more than likely experiencing an ischemic stroke. A ct scan and mri will be ordered to determine if a blood clot was blocking blood flow and to rule out hemorrhagic stroke. If a clot is located and the patient is outside the 4 hour treatment window, a catheter based method to break the clot would be needed 26) risk factors for gallstone formation include each of the following except obesity male gender age (40's) pregnancy - answer male gender 27) risk factors for the development of peptic ulcer include each of the following except: pylori infection family history of pud nsaid use alcohol use stress - answer stress 28) what are rhythmic movements designed to propel the chyme along the small intestine toward the large intestine? - answer peristaltic movements 29) anti-diarrheal medication can be used with all types of diarrhea True or false - answer false 30) which of the following is characteristic of chronic transplant rejection? involves humoral immunity it responds well to immunosuppressive therapy involves increased t lymphocytes - answer involves humoral immunity 31) a patient is said to be in stage 2 kidney disease. What would you expect their gfr to be? A. 97 ml/min/1.73m2 B. 42 ml/min/1.73m2 C. 70 ml/min/1.73m2 D. 14 ml/min/1.73m2 - answer 70 ml/min/1.73m2 32) explain how the kidney can maintain a constant gfr despite variations in the arterial blood pressure of the rest of the body - answer the renal autoregulatory system causes the efferent arteriole to constrict leading to an increased resistance to outflow from the glomeruli with a subsequent increase in glomerular pressure and the gfr. When the afferent arteriole constricts there is a reduction in renal blood flow, glomerular pressure, and the gfr. 33) a patient presents in the emergency department with severe dehydration secondary to vomiting. The following are the results of their blood work: ph = 8.2, pco2 = 39 mm, and hco3 - = 33 meq/l. Based upon these results, what type of acid-base disorder are they experiencing? Is compensation occurring? Describe a treatment intervention for this disorder. Normal values are as follows: ph = 7.35-7.45, pco2 = 35-45 mm, hco3 - = 22-26 meq/l. - answer metabolic alkalosis. There is no respiratory compensation because the pco2 levels fall within normal range. Treatment is fluid replacement with normal saline solution 34) signs and symptoms of addison's disease include each of the following except: hyperpigmentation weight loss muscle weakness hyperglycemia - answer hyperglycemia 35) an endocrine hormone is released into circulation to act on a target organ True or false - answer true 36) hormones work through receptors, and the speed of this action varies. True or false - answer true 37) a 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Lab findings show a low serum t4 and elevated tsh. 1. What diagnosis would her history and lab findings indicate? 2. What type of treatment should be given? - answer 1. Hypothyroidism 2. Thyroxine 38) symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (dka) include each of the following except: polydipsia dehydration fruity smell on the breath bradycardia - answer bradycardia 39) which of the following would a patient likely report if you suspect they have oa pain in their mcp joint stiffness in the morning that resolves in less than 30 minutes pain that would be described as "acute" theyfeel "looser" after they move around - answer stiffness in the morning that resolves in less than 30 minutes 40) blood circulates through bone by what means? (mark all that apply) 41) via the central haversian and volkmann canals an anastomosis between perforating and nutrient arteries diffusion through the endosteal surface of the bone and the canaliculi - answer all three 42) if someone loses their balance when walking on uneven terrain, explain how tendons and ligaments work to protect the joint and structures within it. - answer tendons and ligaments are in proprioception, meaning have awareness of one's position in space or movement of the body. When they undergo stretch, like walking on uneven terrain, the proprioception nerve fibers cause a reflex response to adjust the tension in the muscle. This will allow the body to maintain balance. The molecular structure of tendons and ligamants are of a collagen that contributes to high tensile strength. 43) a 72-year-old male is said to be in phase 3 of gout. He is obese and has a history of alcohol abuse. Develop a treatment plan including specific pharmacologic intervention and a nonpharmacologic recommendation to manage his disease - answer phase three gout is called inter-critical phase. The goal is to prevent future attacks by maintaining normal uric acid levels, and preventing disease progression. Allopurinol is used to reduce uric acid levels. Lifestyle changes, such asweight loss, reduction in alcohol consumption, and avoid foods high in purines 44) a 72-year-old male is said to be in phase 2 of gout. He is obese and has a history of alcohol abuse. Develop a treatment plan including specific pharmacologic intervention and a non-pharmacologic recommendation to manage his disease. - answer pharmacologic intervention: the patient should take nsads drugs in order to reduce inflammation and for pain management. Non-pharmacologic recommendation: the patient should be encouraged to loose weight and decrease alcohol consumption 45) Neoplasia - answer disorder of altered cell differentiation and growth 46) neoplasm - answer the new growth that occurs as a result of neoplasia 47) proliferation - answer --process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division 48) differentiation - answer process in which cells become more specialized with each mitotic division

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Institution
NURS 231
Course
NURS 231

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PORTAGE LEARNING NURS 231
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED
A+<RECENT VERSION>




1) Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful
circumstances. True or false
Exam 1 - answer false


2) hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. True or
false
Exam 1 - answer true


3) which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply
Exam 1


it is involved in cellular respiration
they are found far from the site of energy consumption
they play a role in apoptosis
they control free radicals - answer it is involved in cellular respiration
They play a role in apoptosis


4) which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply

, Exam 1


controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within
2 )the main structural component is made of proteins
helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells
aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation - answer
controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within
5) Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells
Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation


compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis
Exam 1 - answer dry gangrene occurs when blood supply is slowly
reduced to an area. The area is dehydrated and becomes dark or black in
color. Commonly seen in patients with diabetes. It is not very painful, but
tissues eventually die.


6) Wet gangrene is caused by a sudden reduction in blood flow. The area is
cold and swollen, with no pulse. This can occur from trauma. Bacteria is
involved and is very painful. It has the appearance of pus, because it
looks wet. There is also a foul smell


cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more
specialized cell types. True or false
Exam 2 - answer false answer: cell differentiation


7) cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic
cell division. True or false
Exam 2 - answer false, answer: cell proliferation


8) what are two important properties that stem cells possess
Exam 2 - answer potency and self-renewal

,9) these are cells of the same lineage that have not yet differentiated to the
extent that they have lost their ability to divide
Exam 2 - answer progenitor or parent cells


10) is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the
tumor as well as other distant sites
Exam 2 - answer chemotherapy


11) the profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that
accompany cancer is known as
Exam 2 - answer cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome


12) explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders -
answer there are about 80 autoimmune disorders identified, with many
overlapping presentations. Blood tests can be more generic and results are
imprecise. Markers can be elevated in the presecence of other diseases


13) the t cells that display the host's mhc antigens and t-cell receptors
for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed negative
selection
True or false
Ezam 3 - answer false


14) which lab value will typically be increased in a viral infection
Exam 3
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocytes - answer lymphocytes


15) a 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He
presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) what
symptoms might he present with? (2) does the quantity of exposure mean

, he will have a more severe reaction? (3) what is the initial immediate
treatment? (4) what are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always
carry?
Exam 3 - answer 1) shortness of breath, skin redness/hives, gi
discomfort such as cramping, nausea.
2) no
epinephrine
identification of the allergy and epipen


16) a 23-year-old african-american man with a history of severe
lifelong anemia requiring many transfusions has nonhealing leg ulcers
and recurrent periods of abdominal and chest pain. These signs and
symptoms are most likely to be associated with which one of the
following laboratory abnormalities?
Exam 4


sickle cells on peripheral blood smear
loss of intrinsic factor
decreased erythropoietin
decreased ferritin - answer sickle cells on peripheral blood smear


17) which of the following is not true of vitamin b12 deficiency
anemia?
Exam 4
dietary deficiencies are not common
peripheral neuropathy can be a result of deficiency
vitamin b12 is bound to intrinsic factor
mcv is decreased - answer mcv is decreased


18) each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia
except:
Exam 4
obesity
diabetes mellitus
high cholesterol diet

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