PN Hesi Exit Version 4 (Latest-2020) (Verified Answers, COMPLETE GUIDE FOR EXAM PREPARATION)

PN Hesi Exit Version 4 (Latest-2020) (Verified Answers, COMPLETE GUIDE FOR EXAM PREPARATION) Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. A vegetarian client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). What instruction is essential for the nurse to include in the client's discharge teaching? a. Avoid excessive intake of green leafy vegetables. b. Eliminate the intake of highly-processed food items. c. Include a protein-rich fluid supplement in your diet daily. d. Incorporate herbal teas to ensure adequate micro-nutrient intake. 2. A male client with Parkinson's disease is newly diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy. When reviewing the client's medication history, which antiparkinsonian medication is most likely to exacerbate his urologic symptoms? a. Benztropine (Cogentin), an anticholinergic. b. Levodopa (L-dopa), an antiparkinsonian agent. c. Amantadine (Symmetrel), an antiparkinsonian agent. d. Bromocriptine (Parlodel), a dopamine receptor agonist. 3. To prevent the transmission of Hepatitis A, the nurse should wear gloves during which procedure? a. Starting an intravenous (IV) catheter. b. Administering a rectal suppository. c. Emptying a Foley catheter. d. Giving an intramuscular (IM) injection. 4. A client with gestational diabetes is undergoing a non-stress test (NST) at 34-weeks gestation. The baseline fetal heart rate (FHR) is 144 beats/minute. The client is instructed to mark the fetal monitor paper by pressing a button attached to the fetal monitor each time the baby moves. After 20 minutes, the nurse evaluates the fetal monitor strip. Which outcome indicates a reactive NST? a. The mother perceives and marks at least four fetal movements. b. Fetal movements must be elicited with a vibroacoustic stimulator. c. Two FHR accelerations of 15 bpm X 15 seconds are recorded. d. No FHR late decelerations occur in response to fetal movement. 5. A 2-year-old with sickle cell anemia has an axillary temperature of 102° F. In planning care for this child, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? a. Potential activity intolerance related to anemia. b. High risk for infection related to low platelet count. c. High risk for fluid volume deficit related to temperature elevation. d. Alteration in urinary elimination related to renal damage from disease. 6. To evaluate for side effects that occur as a result of the administration of intravenous mannitol (Osmitrol) for acute angle closure glaucoma, the nurse should monitor which lab values? a. Serum glucose. b. Liver enzymes. c. Serum electrolytes. d. Platelets and a PTT. 7. What statement by a client indicates the best understanding of the purpose of postoperative incisional splinting? a. "Increasing pressure on the incision will help reduce my discomfort when coughing." b. "The splints on my incision are there to keep the incision from opening until it is well healed." c. "Splinting my incision will reduce the need for me to cough as frequently." d. "A splint will secure my wound dressing when moving about in bed or ambulating." 8. The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of a sulfonamide to a client with pneumonia and notes that the client has allergies to cephalosporins and penicillins. What action should the nurse take? a. Hold the scheduled dose of sulfonamide until the healthcare provider makes rounds. b. Review the sputum culture and sensitivity report before calling the healthcare provider. c. Contact the healthcare provider regarding a prescription for a PRN antihistamine. d. Administer the scheduled dose of the sulfonamide as prescribed. 9. The charge nurse working the day shift notices an increased number of client complaints regarding poor pain control during the night shift. What is the most effective way for the charge nurse to improve the pain management issue on the unit? a. During an evening shift report, request that night staff nurses assess pain levels and improve pain management. b. At the next unit employee meeting, encourage staff to increase attentiveness to pain management needs of clients. c. Develop and implement a unit-wide project to improve client satisfaction with pain management. d. Post a bulletin asking nurses to anticipate and meet each assigned client's pain management needs. 10. The nurse is assessing a client following a thoracotomy and left lung pneumonectomy. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate? a. Diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally. b. Absent breath sounds on the left side of the chest. c. Crackles and wheezes auscultated in the right lung fields. d. Decreased breath sounds on the left, clear breath sounds on the right. 11. A female client with genital herpes is taking acyclovir (Zovirax). Which client statement indicates to the nurse that the client understands the teaching provided? a. "In order to be cured, I need to take all the prescribed doses even if I am not having any symptoms." b. "Even though I am taking this medication my partner should always use a condom when we have intercourse." c. "Taking this medication every day for the rest of my life will be costly, but is necessary to control the disease." d. "I will come to the clinic for my weekly injections until I feel comfortable giving them to myself." 12. A client has a new prescription for the alpha-beta adrenergic blocker carvedilol (Coreg). It is most important for the nurse to determine if the client has a history of which problem prior to administering the medication? a. High cholesterol. b. Osteoporosis. c. Hypertension. d. Bronchial asthma. 13. A medication is prescribed to be given QID. What schedule should the nurse use to administer this prescription? a. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000. b. 0800. c. Every other day at 0800. d. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 0000, 0400. 14. When planning care for a client with chemotherapy-induced stomatitis, the nurse recognizes that the client is at high risk for which problem? a. Diminished aspiration. b. Altered tissue perfusion. c. Ineffective airway clearance. d. Altered nutrition, less than body requirements. 15. The nurse who is working in the newborn nursery notes that an infant girl has a lacy blue appearance to her skin. What sequela should concern the nurse? a. Hypoglycemia. b. Hyperbilirubinemia. c. Intestinal obstruction. d. Failure to thrive. 16. The nurse is assessing a 2-year-old boy who is admitted to the Emergency Department with a thick greenish discharge coming from his left nostril that has a strong and bad odor. He is fussy and continually picks at his nose. His mother denies any recent fever or other cold symptoms. Based on these assessment findings, what is the most likely cause of these symptoms? a. A foreign object in the left nares. b. Infection of the left maxillary sinus. c. Chronic rhinitis from allergies. d. Deviation of the nasal septum. 17. A client with schizophrenia prepares to leave the mental health unit on a day pass with the case manager. Before the client leaves the unit, which nursing intervention is most important to implement? a. Advise client to stay with the case manager. b. Prepare all medications to take on pass. c. Assess for suicidal or homicidal ideation. d. Obtain and document morning vital signs. 18. The nurse is reviewing the diagnostic tests of a client with a medical diagnosis of chronic renal failure (CRF), or end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Which group of laboratory results should the nurse anticipate that this client will exhibit? a. Decreased sodium, decreased phosphate, and decreased white blood cell count. b. Increased blood urea nitrogen, increased creatinine, and decreased serum calcium. c. Increased red blood cell count, increased creatinine clearance, and increased serum ammonia. d. Decreased potassium, decreased magnesium, and decreased platelets. 19. The home health nurse has determined that an 80-year-old client has a priority nursing diagnosis of, "Altered nutrition, less than body requirements." To assess the client's functional ability related to this diagnosis, which action should the nurse implement? a. Observe the client preparing a meal at home. b. Record the percent of diet eaten in 24 hours. c. Review the client's weekly budget for food. d. Assess the client's food likes and dislikes. 20. After a client experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes during labor, the nurse notes a visible prolapse of the umbilical cord. What intervention should the nurse implement immediately? a. Administer oxygen by face mask at 6 L/min. b. Prepare the client for a cesarean delivery. c. Push the presenting part off the cord. d. Turn the client to a supine position. 21. When is the best time for the nurse to schedule a client's single daily dose of an ophthalmic ointment? a. Early morning. b. With other routine meds at 0900. c. Mid-afternoon. d. Bedtime. 22. The mother of an 8-year-old boy tells the nurse that he fell out of a tree and hurt his arm and shoulder. Which assessment finding is the most significant indicator of possible child abuse? a. The child looks at the floor when answering the nurse's questions. b. The mother refuses to answer questions about family history. c. The child has several abrasions on the chest and legs. d. The mother's version of the injury is different from the child's version. 23. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform before ambulating a client with a history of syncope? a. Blood pressure. b. Oxygen saturation. c. Breath sounds. d. Pedal pulses. 24. The healthcare provider prescribes oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min. Which action has the highest priority when the nurse implements this prescription? a. Pad bony prominences. b. Apply a humidifier. c. Set the flow meter. d. Administer oral care. 25. Penicillin V 500 mg IM is prescribed for a well-developed adult female client. The medication is available in a vial marked "Penicillin V 1 gm in 5 ml." Which equipment is best for the nurse to use to administer this prescription? a. 5 ml syringe with a 18 gauge, 1½ needle. b. Two 3 ml syringes with 22 gauge, 1½ needles. c. 3 ml syringe, with a 22 gauge, 1½ needle. d. Two 1 ml syringes with 18 gauge, 1 inch needles. 26. Which client should the nurse assess first? A client with a. an inguinal hernia who has developed abdominal distention and fever in the last 8 hours. b. inflammatory bowel syndrome who reports left lower quadrant abdominal pain. c. celiac disease who has developed frequent episodes of watery diarrhea. d. gastroesophageal reflux who reports increasing episodes of belching and nausea. 27. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, "What do you think you're doing?" How should the nurse respond? a. "This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet." b. "You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot." c. "Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?" d. "I cannot give you this medication until you calm down." 28. After receiving morning report about four clients, which client should the nurse attend to first? a. A young adult client with a closed reduction of a fractured femur who has been complaining of increasingly severe pain. b. An adult client with osteomyelitis of the ankle who refuses an IV restart that is needed to administer antibiotics. c. An elderly client with low back pain who removed the pelvic traction and repeatedly states a strong desire to go home. d. An older female client who had a hip replacement yesterday and is notably pale with a Hemoglobin of 10.5 g/dl. 29. The nurse should anticipate the use of medications from which classification in the treatment of acute gout? a. Diuretics. b. Immunosupressants. c. Antibiotics. d. Antiinflammatory agents. 30. A 39-year-old female client comes to the clinic with sneezing, itchy eyes, and a stuffy, drippy nose. Inspection of the nasal cavity reveals pale, swollen turbinates and clear mucoid discharge. What is the most likely explanation for these manifestations? a. Allergic rhinitis. b. Acute sinusitis. c. Nasal polyps. d. Common cold. 154. A female adolescent client tells the nurse that she has an "anger" problem and often tries to hit her mother. The client also tried to stab the school principal with a fork. Which client outcome is most important for the treatment plan? a. State two ways to cope with angry feelings. b. Identify at least one support person. c. Participate in therapeutic exercise. d. Attend daily group therapy.