1
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN
FINAL EXAM 2025 – VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS
Antepartum Care
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks gestation. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
A. Fundal height of 34 cm
B. Reports of decreased fetal movement
C. Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in one week
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress or compromise,
requiring immediate provider notification to assess fetal well-being. Fundal height, blood
pressure, and weight gain within normal ranges are expected findings.
2. A client at 28 weeks gestation is prescribed iron supplements. Which instruction
should the nurse include to enhance absorption?
A. Take the supplement with milk
B. Take the supplement with a vitamin C source
C. Take the supplement at bedtime
D. Take the supplement with meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by reducing ferric iron to ferrous iron in
the gut. Milk and meals may reduce absorption due to calcium and food interactions.
3. A nurse is teaching a client at 12 weeks gestation about a positive rubella titer. What
does this result indicate?
A. The client is at risk for congenital rubella syndrome
B. The client requires immediate vaccination
C. The client is immune to rubella
D. The client has an active rubella infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive rubella titer indicates immunity, protecting the fetus from
congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination is contraindicated in pregnancy, and a positive
titer does not indicate active infection.
4. A client at 16 weeks gestation reports occasional palpitations. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Notify the provider immediately
, 2
B. Assess the client’s caffeine intake
C. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min
D. Prepare for an electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Palpitations in pregnancy are often benign and related to increased cardiac
output or stimulants like caffeine. Assessing caffeine intake is the first step before
escalating care.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks gestation. Which
laboratory finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
B. Hemoglobin A1c of 7.5%
C. Hematocrit of 38%
D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 7.5% indicates poor glycemic control, increasing the
risk of fetal complications. Other values are within normal ranges for pregnancy.
6. A client at 30 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding is most
concerning?
A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
B. Proteinuria of 1+
C. Epigastric pain
D. Dependent edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epigastric pain may indicate severe preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome,
suggesting liver involvement and requiring urgent evaluation. Other findings are less
immediately concerning.
7. A nurse is providing education on Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening. At what
gestation is this typically performed?
A. 12–14 weeks
B. 24–26 weeks
C. 35–37 weeks
D. 38–40 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: GBS screening is performed at 35–37 weeks to identify colonization and
guide intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent neonatal sepsis.
8. A client at 20 weeks gestation reports constipation. Which recommendation should
the nurse provide?
A. Increase intake of dairy products
B. Take a daily laxative
C. Increase fiber and fluid intake
D. Reduce physical activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increased fiber and fluid intake promotes bowel motility, addressing
constipation safely in pregnancy. Laxatives are not first-line, and dairy may worsen
symptoms.
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN
FINAL EXAM 2025 – VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS
Antepartum Care
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks gestation. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
A. Fundal height of 34 cm
B. Reports of decreased fetal movement
C. Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in one week
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress or compromise,
requiring immediate provider notification to assess fetal well-being. Fundal height, blood
pressure, and weight gain within normal ranges are expected findings.
2. A client at 28 weeks gestation is prescribed iron supplements. Which instruction
should the nurse include to enhance absorption?
A. Take the supplement with milk
B. Take the supplement with a vitamin C source
C. Take the supplement at bedtime
D. Take the supplement with meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by reducing ferric iron to ferrous iron in
the gut. Milk and meals may reduce absorption due to calcium and food interactions.
3. A nurse is teaching a client at 12 weeks gestation about a positive rubella titer. What
does this result indicate?
A. The client is at risk for congenital rubella syndrome
B. The client requires immediate vaccination
C. The client is immune to rubella
D. The client has an active rubella infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive rubella titer indicates immunity, protecting the fetus from
congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination is contraindicated in pregnancy, and a positive
titer does not indicate active infection.
4. A client at 16 weeks gestation reports occasional palpitations. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Notify the provider immediately
, 2
B. Assess the client’s caffeine intake
C. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min
D. Prepare for an electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Palpitations in pregnancy are often benign and related to increased cardiac
output or stimulants like caffeine. Assessing caffeine intake is the first step before
escalating care.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks gestation. Which
laboratory finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
B. Hemoglobin A1c of 7.5%
C. Hematocrit of 38%
D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 7.5% indicates poor glycemic control, increasing the
risk of fetal complications. Other values are within normal ranges for pregnancy.
6. A client at 30 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding is most
concerning?
A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
B. Proteinuria of 1+
C. Epigastric pain
D. Dependent edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epigastric pain may indicate severe preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome,
suggesting liver involvement and requiring urgent evaluation. Other findings are less
immediately concerning.
7. A nurse is providing education on Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening. At what
gestation is this typically performed?
A. 12–14 weeks
B. 24–26 weeks
C. 35–37 weeks
D. 38–40 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: GBS screening is performed at 35–37 weeks to identify colonization and
guide intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent neonatal sepsis.
8. A client at 20 weeks gestation reports constipation. Which recommendation should
the nurse provide?
A. Increase intake of dairy products
B. Take a daily laxative
C. Increase fiber and fluid intake
D. Reduce physical activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increased fiber and fluid intake promotes bowel motility, addressing
constipation safely in pregnancy. Laxatives are not first-line, and dairy may worsen
symptoms.
