Critical Care HESI Exit Exam Version 1 |
2025/2026 Edition
All 55 Verified Questions and Correct Answers | Guaranteed A+ | 100%
Accurate
1 Introduction
This document includes all 55 verified and 100% correct questions and answers
from Critical Care HESI Exit Exam Version 1, updated for the 2025/2026 academic
year. It focuses on core critical care nursing topics such as advanced cardiac life
support (ACLS), ventilator management, hemodynamics, critical pharmacology,
shock, and sepsis protocols. Structured to match the real HESI exam format, this
A+ guaranteed resource is ideal for nursing students preparing for success in
critical care assessments.
2 Exam Questions and Answers
1. A client in ventricular fibrillation is receiving ACLS. Which intervention
should the nurse prioritize?
A) Administer IV fluids
B) Defibrillate immediately
C) Start oxygen at 2 L/min
D) Insert an IV line
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia requiring
immediate defibrillation per ACLS guidelines to restore a perfusing rhythm.
2. A client on mechanical ventilation has a high-pressure alarm. What should
the nurse assess first?
A) Oxygen saturation
B) Airway obstruction
C) Ventilator settings
D) Sedation level
Rationale: A high-pressure alarm indicates resistance, often due to airway
obstruction (e.g., mucus plug or biting the tube), which must be assessed first.
3. A client with septic shock has a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 55 mmHg.
Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Nitroglycerin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Furosemide
D) Metoprolol
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock to in-
crease MAP and improve perfusion per sepsis protocols.
4. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on a ventilator.
Which setting should the nurse expect?
HESI | Critical Care Exit Exam Version 1 | Verified Questions and Answers
| Guaranteed A+ | 100% Correct | 2025/2026
, A) High tidal volume
B) Low tidal volume
C) High respiratory rate
D) Low PEEP
Rationale: Low tidal volume ventilation (6–8 mL/kg) is used in ARDS to pre-
vent lung injury per lung-protective strategy.
5. A client with a pulmonary artery catheter has a pulmonary artery wedge
pressure (PAWP) of 22 mmHg. What does this indicate?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Left ventricular failure
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Right ventricular failure
Rationale: Elevated PAWP (>18 mmHg) indicates increased left ventricular
preload, often due to left ventricular failure.
6. A client in cardiogenic shock is receiving dobutamine. Which parameter
should the nurse monitor closely?
A) Blood glucose
B) Cardiac output
C) Respiratory rate
D) Potassium levels
Rationale: Dobutamine increases cardiac contractility; monitoring cardiac
output ensures therapeutic effectiveness in cardiogenic shock.
7. A client with an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) suddenly develops absent
peripheral pulses. What should the nurse do first?
A) Increase balloon inflation
B) Notify the provider immediately
C) Administer heparin
D) Check the console settings
Rationale: Absent pulses suggest a complication (e.g., thrombosis or balloon
malposition), requiring immediate provider notification.
8. A client with status epilepticus is receiving lorazepam. Which medication
should the nurse prepare next?
A) Phenytoin
B) Fosphenytoin
C) Midazolam
D) Propofol
Rationale: Fosphenytoin is administered after benzodiazepines to control sta-
tus epilepticus and prevent recurrence.
9. A client with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6 is admitted to the ICU.
What should the nurse prioritize?
A) Pain management
B) Airway protection
C) Nutritional support
D) Mobility exercises
Rationale: A GCS of 6 indicates severe neurological impairment; airway pro-
HESI | Critical Care Exit Exam Version 1 | Verified Questions and Answers
| Guaranteed A+ | 100% Correct | 2025/2026
2025/2026 Edition
All 55 Verified Questions and Correct Answers | Guaranteed A+ | 100%
Accurate
1 Introduction
This document includes all 55 verified and 100% correct questions and answers
from Critical Care HESI Exit Exam Version 1, updated for the 2025/2026 academic
year. It focuses on core critical care nursing topics such as advanced cardiac life
support (ACLS), ventilator management, hemodynamics, critical pharmacology,
shock, and sepsis protocols. Structured to match the real HESI exam format, this
A+ guaranteed resource is ideal for nursing students preparing for success in
critical care assessments.
2 Exam Questions and Answers
1. A client in ventricular fibrillation is receiving ACLS. Which intervention
should the nurse prioritize?
A) Administer IV fluids
B) Defibrillate immediately
C) Start oxygen at 2 L/min
D) Insert an IV line
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia requiring
immediate defibrillation per ACLS guidelines to restore a perfusing rhythm.
2. A client on mechanical ventilation has a high-pressure alarm. What should
the nurse assess first?
A) Oxygen saturation
B) Airway obstruction
C) Ventilator settings
D) Sedation level
Rationale: A high-pressure alarm indicates resistance, often due to airway
obstruction (e.g., mucus plug or biting the tube), which must be assessed first.
3. A client with septic shock has a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 55 mmHg.
Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Nitroglycerin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Furosemide
D) Metoprolol
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock to in-
crease MAP and improve perfusion per sepsis protocols.
4. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on a ventilator.
Which setting should the nurse expect?
HESI | Critical Care Exit Exam Version 1 | Verified Questions and Answers
| Guaranteed A+ | 100% Correct | 2025/2026
, A) High tidal volume
B) Low tidal volume
C) High respiratory rate
D) Low PEEP
Rationale: Low tidal volume ventilation (6–8 mL/kg) is used in ARDS to pre-
vent lung injury per lung-protective strategy.
5. A client with a pulmonary artery catheter has a pulmonary artery wedge
pressure (PAWP) of 22 mmHg. What does this indicate?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Left ventricular failure
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Right ventricular failure
Rationale: Elevated PAWP (>18 mmHg) indicates increased left ventricular
preload, often due to left ventricular failure.
6. A client in cardiogenic shock is receiving dobutamine. Which parameter
should the nurse monitor closely?
A) Blood glucose
B) Cardiac output
C) Respiratory rate
D) Potassium levels
Rationale: Dobutamine increases cardiac contractility; monitoring cardiac
output ensures therapeutic effectiveness in cardiogenic shock.
7. A client with an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) suddenly develops absent
peripheral pulses. What should the nurse do first?
A) Increase balloon inflation
B) Notify the provider immediately
C) Administer heparin
D) Check the console settings
Rationale: Absent pulses suggest a complication (e.g., thrombosis or balloon
malposition), requiring immediate provider notification.
8. A client with status epilepticus is receiving lorazepam. Which medication
should the nurse prepare next?
A) Phenytoin
B) Fosphenytoin
C) Midazolam
D) Propofol
Rationale: Fosphenytoin is administered after benzodiazepines to control sta-
tus epilepticus and prevent recurrence.
9. A client with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6 is admitted to the ICU.
What should the nurse prioritize?
A) Pain management
B) Airway protection
C) Nutritional support
D) Mobility exercises
Rationale: A GCS of 6 indicates severe neurological impairment; airway pro-
HESI | Critical Care Exit Exam Version 1 | Verified Questions and Answers
| Guaranteed A+ | 100% Correct | 2025/2026
