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DCOM 219 FINAL ACCURATE TESTED VERSIONS OF THE EXAM FROM 2025 TO 2026 | ACCURATE AND VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEXT GEN FORMAT | GUARANTEED PASS

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1. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0 when summarizing the networks 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 (all /24)? A) area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.0 B) area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0 C) area 15 range D) area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0 Correct Answer: C) area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0 Rationale: The area [area-id] range [address] [mask] command is used on the ABR to summarize routes into another area. The mask 255.255.248.0 (/21) summarizes the networks from 172.16.8.0 to 172.16.15.255, covering all listed /24 subnets. 2. OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the _______ router to advertise routes in multiaccess networks. A) backup designated B) designated C) autonomous system boundary D) internal Correct Answer: B) designated Rationale: Designated routers (DRs) generate type 2 LSAs to represent the multiaccess network for OSPF neighbors. 3. An ASBR generates type __ LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is connected to. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Answer: D) 5 Rationale: ASBRs generate type 5 LSAs to advertise external routes outside the OSPF autonomous system. 4. A type __ LSA identifies the ASBR and provides a route to it. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Answer: C) 4 Rationale: Type 4 LSAs are used to advertise routes to ASBRs within OSPF. 5. What is the missing command to configure R1 for multiarea OSPF for the network 192.168.10.128/25 in area 1? A) network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 0 B) network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 C) network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 1 D) network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Correct Answer: B) network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 Rationale: This command specifies the correct subnet and wildcard mask to assign that subnet to area 1. 6. Why are users in the OSPF network not able to access the Internet? A) OSPF process is down on the router. B) The network statement is misconfigured on router R1. C) The default route is missing. D) Area 0 is not configured. Correct Answer: B) The network statement is misconfigured on router R1. Rationale: Incorrect network statements cause routes not to be advertised properly, preventing internet access. 7. What is the missing command on router R2 to establish an adjacency between routers R1 and R3? A) network 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 B) network 172.16.8.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 C) network 172.16.12.0 0.0.0.255 area 1 D) network 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 1 Correct Answer: A) network 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Rationale: The missing network statement must match the area and subnet for adjacency formation. 8. Which two parameters must match between neighboring OSPF routers to form an adjacency? (Choose two.) A) Router IDs B) Hello and dead timers C) Network types D) MTU size Correct Answers: B) Hello and dead timers, C) Network types Rationale: Hello/dead timers and network types must match for OSPF neighbors to form adjacency. 9. Which command can be used to view the OSPF hello and dead time intervals? A) show ip protocols B) show ip ospf interface C) show D) show running-config ip ospf neighbor Correct Answer: B) show ip ospf interface Rationale: This command displays interface-specific OSPF settings, including hello and dead intervals. 10. What is the purpose of the command show ipv6 protocols in OSPFv3? A) To verify OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies B) To verify OSPFv3 configuration information C) To clear OSPFv3 process D) To display IPv6 routing table Correct Answer: B) To verify OSPFv3 configuration information Rationale: show ipv6 protocols displays OSPFv3 process and network info. 11. What is the main purpose of the command router ospfv3 1? A) To configure OSPFv3 for IPv4 routing B) To start an OSPFv3 routing process with process ID 1 C) To assign an IPv6 address to the router D) To enable OSPFv2 routing on the router Correct Answer: B) To start an OSPFv3 routing process with process ID 1 Rationale: The command initiates the OSPFv3 process using ID 1, which is required before configuring OSPFv3 on interfaces. 12. Which of the following is true about OSPFv3 compared to OSPFv2? A) OSPFv3 supports only IPv4 addressing. B) OSPFv3 uses multicast address FF02::5 for all OSPF routers. C) OSPFv3 requires separate process IDs per interface. D) OSPFv3 does not use link-local addresses for neighbor discovery. Correct Answer: B) OSPFv3 uses multicast address FF02::5 for all OSPF routers. Rationale: OSPFv3 uses IPv6 multicast addresses, such as FF02::5 for all routers and FF02::6 for designated routers. 13. How is authentication handled in OSPFv3? A) Authentication is built-in and configured via OSPFv3 commands. B) OSPFv3 relies on IPv6 IPsec for authentication and encryption. C) OSPFv3 uses the same authentication methods as OSPFv2. D) OSPFv3 does not support authentication. Correct Answer: B) OSPFv3 relies on IPv6 IPsec for authentication and encryption. Rationale: OSPFv3 removes built-in authentication; instead, it uses IPv6’s IPsec for securing OSPF traffic. 14. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be used to form an OSPFv3 neighbor adjacency? A) Global unicast addresses only B) Link-local addresses only C) Any IPv6 address assigned to the interface D) Multicast addresses only Correct Answer: B) Link-local addresses only Rationale: OSPFv3 uses IPv6 link-local addresses for neighbor discovery and adjacency formation. 15. What is the effect of the command ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 on an interface? A) Enables OSPFv3 process 1 on the interface and assigns it to area 0 B) Enables OSPFv2 on the interface with area 0 C) Assigns an IPv6 address to the interface D) Enables OSPFv3 passive mode on the interface Correct Answer: A) Enables OSPFv3 process 1 on the interface and assigns it to area 0 Rationale: This command activates OSPFv3 routing process 1 on the interface and assigns it to the specified area. 16. What is the default OSPFv3 router priority value? A) 0 B) 1 C) 128 D) 255 Correct Answer: B) 1 Rationale: The default router priority for OSPFv3 is 1, which influences designated router election. 17. Which type of OSPFv3 LSA is generated by the DR to describe the links on a multiaccess network? A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Type 3 D) Type 4 Correct Answer: B) Type 2 Rationale: As in OSPFv2, the designated router generates type 2 LSAs to describe the network topology. 18. What command is used to summarize IPv6 routes on an ABR in OSPFv3? A) area [area-id] range [prefix] [prefix-length] B) ipv6 ospf summary-address [address/prefix] C) ipv6 ospf abr-summary [prefix] D) summary-address [prefix] area [area-id] Correct Answer: A) area [area-id] range [prefix] [prefix-length] Rationale: The command summarizes routes for a specific area on an ABR by specifying a prefix and prefix length. 19. Which of the following is NOT true about OSPFv3? A) It supports IPv6 routing. B) It uses link-local addresses for neighbor communication. C) It requires interface-level configuration. D) It supports authentication using MD5 keys within the OSPF protocol. Correct Answer: D) It supports authentication using MD5 keys within the OSPF protocol. Rationale: OSPFv3 does not support OSPF protocol-based authentication like MD5; it relies on IPv6 IPsec instead. 20. What is the IPv6 multicast address used by the DR to communicate with other routers in OSPFv3? A) FF02::5 B) FF02::6 C) D) FF02::2 Correct Answer: B) FF02::6 FF02::1 Rationale: FF02::6 is the IPv6 multicast address for OSPFv3 designated routers.

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DCOM 258 Final Exam Review
EXAM 2025 | ACTUAL REAL EXAM
ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES | VERIFIED AND
LATEST UPDATED |GUARANTEED PASS
1. Which of the following is the best practice to implement when securing log
files?
A. Delete logs daily
B. Encrypt logs with user passwords
C. Copy the logs to a remote log server
D. Store logs on the same server they’re generated on
✅ Correct Answer: C. Copy the logs to a remote log server
Rationale: This prevents tampering by ensuring logs are kept on a separate, secure
server.

2. Which of the following should be done if an audit recording fails?
A. Ignore the failure
B. Delete audit logs
C. Send an alert to the administrator
D. Restart the server
✅ Correct Answer: C. Send an alert to the administrator
Rationale: Prompt alerts ensure immediate action can be taken to restore logging
integrity.

3. In what way can you gather information from a remote printer?
A. FTP
B. SNMP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
✅ Correct Answer: B. SNMP
Rationale: SNMP is used for managing and monitoring network devices, including
printers.

4. What is the main reason to frequently view the logs of a DNS server?
A. To optimize DNS caching
B. To monitor server uptime
C. To watch for unauthorized zone transfers
D. To balance traffic

,✅ Correct Answer: C. To watch for unauthorized zone transfers
Rationale: Unauthorized zone transfers can reveal internal DNS structure to attackers.

5. You are setting up auditing on a Windows computer. If set up properly, which
log should have entries?
A. Application log
B. Security log
C. System log
D. Setup log
✅ Correct Answer: B. Security log
Rationale: The Security log stores records of auditing events in Windows.

6. The IT director has asked you to install agents on several client computers and
monitor them from a server. What is this known as?
A. RADIUS
B. SNMP
C. Syslog
D. SMTP
✅ Correct Answer: B. SNMP
Rationale: SNMP uses agents on clients to report performance and status to a
management server.

7. Which of the following deals with the standard load for a server?
A. Load balancer
B. Configuration baseline
C. Audit trail
D. Monitoring agent
✅ Correct Answer: B. Configuration baseline
Rationale: A configuration baseline is used to define the standard performance and
configuration for comparison.

8. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a secure cipher
and a secure hash?
A. A cipher and hash are reversible
B. A cipher can be reversed; a hash cannot
C. A hash is encrypted data
D. A cipher creates a checksum
✅ Correct Answer: B. A cipher can be reversed; a hash cannot
Rationale: Ciphers are reversible with a key, while hashes are one-way operations.

9. Which of the following is the weakest encryption type?
A. AES
B. RSA

, C. DES
D. ECC
✅ Correct Answer: C. DES
Rationale: DES uses only a 56-bit key and is considered insecure by modern standards.

10. What is another term for secret key encryption?
A. Asymmetric
B. One-way encryption
C. Public key encryption
D. Symmetrical
✅ Correct Answer: D. Symmetrical
Rationale: Symmetrical encryption uses the same key for both encryption and
decryption.
11. Your boss wants you to set up an authentication scheme where employees
use smart cards to log in to the company network. What kind of key should be
used?
A. Session key
B. Public key
C. Private key
D. Shared key
✅ Correct Answer: C. Private key
Rationale: Smart cards store private keys, which are used in public key cryptography for
authentication.

12. You need an asymmetric encryption method with strong encryption and
shorter key lengths. Which method should you choose?
A. RSA
B. DES
C. ECC
D. AES
✅ Correct Answer: C. ECC
Rationale: Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) provides strong encryption with shorter
key lengths.

13. What does it mean if a hashing algorithm creates the same hash for two
different downloads?
A. Integrity
B. Authentication
C. A collision has occurred
D. The file is compressed
✅ Correct Answer: C. A collision has occurred
Rationale: A hash collision occurs when two different inputs produce the same output,
compromising integrity.

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