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Comprehensive Predictor HESI PN Test Bank 300+ verified questions and answers with detailed Rationales Graded A+ - Brand New Q&As Latest

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Comprehensive Predictor HESI PN Test Bank 300+ verified questions and answers with detailed Rationales Graded A+ - Brand New Q&As Latest The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute? A. 80 B. 8 C. 21 D. 25 – ANS :The accepted formula for figuring drops per minute is: amount to be infused in one hour × drop factor/time for infusion (min)= drops per minute. Using this formula: 1,000/8 hours = 125 ml/ hour 125 × 10 (drip factor) = 1,250 drops in one hour. 1,250/ 60 (number of minutes in one hour) = 20.8 or 21 gtt/min (C). Correct Answer: C Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves? A. Maintain thumb at a ninety degree angle. B. Hold hands with fingers down while gloving. C. Keep gloved hands above the elbows. D. Put the glove on the dominant hand first. – ANS :Gloved hands held below waist level are considered unsterile (C). (A and B) are not essential to maintaining asepsis. While it may be helpful to put the glove on the dominant hand first, it is not necessary to ensure asepsis (D). Correct Answer: C

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Comprehensive Predictor HESI PN Test
Bank
Comprehensive Predictor HESI PN Test
Bank 300+ verified questions and answers
with detailed Rationales Graded A+ - Brand
New Q&As Latest


The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set
delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many
drops per minute?
A. 80
B. 8
C. 21
D. 25 –

ANS :The accepted formula for figuring drops per minute is: amount to be infused in one hour × drop
factor/time for infusion (min)= drops per minute. Using this formula: 1,000/8 hours = 125 ml/ hour 125 ×
10 (drip factor) = 1,250 drops in one hour. 1,250/ 60 (number of minutes in one hour) = 20.8 or 21 gtt/min
(C).
Correct Answer: C

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves?
A. Maintain thumb at a ninety degree angle.
B. Hold hands with fingers down while gloving.
C. Keep gloved hands above the elbows.
D. Put the glove on the dominant hand first. –


ANS :Gloved hands held below waist level are considered unsterile (C). (A and B) are not essential to
maintaining asepsis. While it may be helpful to put the glove on the dominant hand first, it is not
necessary to ensure asepsis (D).
Correct Answer: C
HALINTONE 1

, Comprehensive Predictor HESI PN Test
Bank
A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused
into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding
"stronger pain medications." What initial action is most important for the nurse to take?
A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area. –



ANS :Pain and diminished pulse volume (B) are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to
complete loss of the peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external
pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds
capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to the extremity. (A) should not be
pursued until physical causes of the pain are ruled out. (C) is of less priority than determining the
effects of the edema on circulation and nerve function. Further assessment of the client's ecchymosis
can be delayed until the signs of edema and compression that suggest compartment syndrome have
been examined (D).
Correct Answer: B

An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving
bolus enteral feedings though a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for administration
of the bolus tube feedings?
A. Prone.
B. Fowler's.
C. Sims'.
D. Supine.


- ANS :The client should be positioned in a semi-sitting (Fowler's) (B) position during feeding to
decrease the occurrence of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, known as a PEG tube, due to placement by
a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy procedure, is inserted directly into the stomach through an
incision in the abdomen for long-term administration of nutrition and hydration in the debilitated client.
In (A and/or C), the client is placed on the abdomen, an unsafe position for feeding. Placing the client in
(D) increases the risk of aspiration.
Correct Answer: B

A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting
from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the nurse include in
HALINTONE 2

, Comprehensive Predictor HESI PN Test
Bank
this client's teaching plan?
A. In 8 weeks you will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor.
B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions. –


ANS :The client's affected hip joint following a hemiarthroplasty (partial hip replacement) is at risk of
dislocation for 6 months to a year following the procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation
include placing a pillow between the knees to maintain abduction of the hips (B). Clients should be
instructed to avoid bending at the waist (A), to seek assistance for both standing and walking until they
are stable on a walker or cane (C), and to take pain medication 20 to 30 minutes prior to physical
therapy sessions, rather than waiting until the pain level is high after their therapy.
Correct Answer: B

A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based
on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe. –


ANS :An oxygen saturation below 90% indicates inadequate oxygenation. First, the client should be
assisted to return to bed (A) to minimize oxygen demands. Ambulation increases aeration of the lungs
to prevent pooling of respiratory secretions, but the client's activity at this time is depleting oxygen
saturation of the blood, so (B) is contraindicated. Increased activity increases respiratory effort, and
oxygen may be necessary to continue ambulation (C), but first the client should return to bed to rest.
Oxygen saturation levels at different sites should be evaluated after the client returns to bed (D).
Correct Answer: A

A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the
nurse take?
A. Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein.
B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption.
D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CRF. –

ANS :Foods such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are allowed because they are
complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for growth and cell repair.
HALINTONE 3

, Comprehensive Predictor HESI PN Test
Bank
Although a low-protein diet is followed (B), some protein is essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium,
and should not be encouraged (C). The client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary.
Correct Answer: A

A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is
most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment?
A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?
C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?

- ANS :Vitamin and mineral supplements (B) may impact medications used during the operative period.
(A and C) are appropriate questions for long-term dietary counseling. The nature of the surgery and
anesthesia will determine the need for a clear liquid diet (D), rather than the client's preference.
Correct Answer: B

During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears
dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray.
B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice.
C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning.
D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water. –


ANS :Dark amber urine is characteristic of fluid volume deficit, and the client should be encouraged to
increase fluid intake (D). Caffeine, however, is a diuretic (A), and may worsen the fluid volume deficit.
Any type of juice will be beneficial (B), since the client is not dysuric, a sign of an urinary tract infection.
The client needs to restore fluid volume more than solid foods (C).
Correct Answer: D

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing
urinary retention?
A. Apply a condom catheter.
B. Apply a skin protectant.
C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
D. Assess for bladder distention. –


ANS :Urinary retention is the inability to void all urine collected in the bladder, which leads to
uncomfortable bladder distention (D). (A and B) are useful actions to protect the skin of a client with
HALINTONE 4

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