BSN 246 HESI Health Assessment Exam V2 (2025/2026) – 100%
Verified Questions and Correct Answers | Grade A – Nightingale
Instructions
This document contains 80 updated multiple-choice questions designed for the BSN 246
HESI Health Assessment Exam V2 (2025/2026). Each question covers critical areas of ad-
vanced nursing health assessment, aligned with Nightingale’s curriculum, including physical
examination, history-taking, and clinical reasoning. Each question includes four answer op-
tions, with the correct answer clearly marked and supported by a detailed rationale. Use
these questions to prepare for the exam and enhance your assessment skills.
Practice Questions
Question 1:
During a respiratory assessment, the nurse notes a barrel chest in a patient. This finding is
most consistent with which condition?
(A) Asthma
(B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter, is a hallmark of
COPD due to chronic air trapping and lung hyperinflation. Asthma (A) may cause wheezing
but not a barrel chest, pneumonia (C) presents with consolidation, and pulmonary edema
(D) is associated with fluid overload, not chest shape changes.
Question 2:
The nurse is assessing a patient’s cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal). Which action should the
patient perform?
(A) Stick out the tongue and move it side to side
(B) Shrug the shoulders against resistance
(C) Follow a light with their eyes
(D) Puff out the cheeks
1
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) controls tongue movement. Asking the patient to stick out
the tongue and move it side to side assesses for deviation or weakness. Shoulder shrug (B)
tests cranial nerve XI, eye movement (C) tests cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, and puffing
cheeks (D) tests cranial nerve VII.
Question 3:
A patient reports epigastric pain that worsens after eating. Which organ is most likely
involved?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Stomach
(D) Spleen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Epigastric pain worsening after eating suggests gastric irritation, commonly associated with
the stomach (e.g., gastritis, peptic ulcer). Liver (A) pain is typically right upper quadrant,
pancreatic (B) pain may radiate to the back, and spleen (D) pain is left upper quadrant.
Question 4:
During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse auscultates a high-pitched, blowing murmur
at the 2nd right intercostal space. This finding is most consistent with which condition?
(A) Mitral regurgitation
(B) Aortic stenosis
(C) Tricuspid regurgitation
(D) Pulmonic stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A high-pitched, blowing murmur at the 2nd right intercostal space is characteristic of aortic
stenosis, heard best at the aortic area. Mitral regurgitation (A) is heard at the apex, tricuspid
regurgitation (C) at the lower left sternal border, and pulmonic stenosis (D) at the 2nd left
intercostal space.
Question 5:
The nurse is performing a Romberg test. What does a positive result indicate?
2
, (A) Peripheral neuropathy
(B) Cerebellar dysfunction
(C) Muscle weakness
(D) Joint instability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A positive Romberg test (swaying or falling with eyes closed) indicates cerebellar dysfunc-
tion or impaired proprioception, as the patient cannot compensate for loss of visual input.
Peripheral neuropathy (A) may cause sensory loss, muscle weakness (C) affects strength,
and joint instability (D) is unrelated.
Question 6:
A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. Which category is most likely
contributing to this score?
(A) Eye opening
(B) Verbal response
(C) Motor response
(D) All categories equally
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The GCS assesses eye opening (1–4), verbal response (1–5), and motor response (1–6), with a
total score of 3–15. A score of 10 suggests deficits across all categories, as no single category
alone can account for the reduction from a perfect score of 15. Thus, all categories likely
contribute.
Question 7:
During a skin assessment, the nurse notes a 2 cm, irregular, pigmented lesion with asymmetry.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
(A) Document the finding and monitor
(B) Apply a topical antibiotic
(C) Refer the patient to a dermatologist
(D) Cleanse the lesion with saline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
3
Verified Questions and Correct Answers | Grade A – Nightingale
Instructions
This document contains 80 updated multiple-choice questions designed for the BSN 246
HESI Health Assessment Exam V2 (2025/2026). Each question covers critical areas of ad-
vanced nursing health assessment, aligned with Nightingale’s curriculum, including physical
examination, history-taking, and clinical reasoning. Each question includes four answer op-
tions, with the correct answer clearly marked and supported by a detailed rationale. Use
these questions to prepare for the exam and enhance your assessment skills.
Practice Questions
Question 1:
During a respiratory assessment, the nurse notes a barrel chest in a patient. This finding is
most consistent with which condition?
(A) Asthma
(B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter, is a hallmark of
COPD due to chronic air trapping and lung hyperinflation. Asthma (A) may cause wheezing
but not a barrel chest, pneumonia (C) presents with consolidation, and pulmonary edema
(D) is associated with fluid overload, not chest shape changes.
Question 2:
The nurse is assessing a patient’s cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal). Which action should the
patient perform?
(A) Stick out the tongue and move it side to side
(B) Shrug the shoulders against resistance
(C) Follow a light with their eyes
(D) Puff out the cheeks
1
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) controls tongue movement. Asking the patient to stick out
the tongue and move it side to side assesses for deviation or weakness. Shoulder shrug (B)
tests cranial nerve XI, eye movement (C) tests cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, and puffing
cheeks (D) tests cranial nerve VII.
Question 3:
A patient reports epigastric pain that worsens after eating. Which organ is most likely
involved?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Stomach
(D) Spleen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Epigastric pain worsening after eating suggests gastric irritation, commonly associated with
the stomach (e.g., gastritis, peptic ulcer). Liver (A) pain is typically right upper quadrant,
pancreatic (B) pain may radiate to the back, and spleen (D) pain is left upper quadrant.
Question 4:
During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse auscultates a high-pitched, blowing murmur
at the 2nd right intercostal space. This finding is most consistent with which condition?
(A) Mitral regurgitation
(B) Aortic stenosis
(C) Tricuspid regurgitation
(D) Pulmonic stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A high-pitched, blowing murmur at the 2nd right intercostal space is characteristic of aortic
stenosis, heard best at the aortic area. Mitral regurgitation (A) is heard at the apex, tricuspid
regurgitation (C) at the lower left sternal border, and pulmonic stenosis (D) at the 2nd left
intercostal space.
Question 5:
The nurse is performing a Romberg test. What does a positive result indicate?
2
, (A) Peripheral neuropathy
(B) Cerebellar dysfunction
(C) Muscle weakness
(D) Joint instability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A positive Romberg test (swaying or falling with eyes closed) indicates cerebellar dysfunc-
tion or impaired proprioception, as the patient cannot compensate for loss of visual input.
Peripheral neuropathy (A) may cause sensory loss, muscle weakness (C) affects strength,
and joint instability (D) is unrelated.
Question 6:
A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. Which category is most likely
contributing to this score?
(A) Eye opening
(B) Verbal response
(C) Motor response
(D) All categories equally
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The GCS assesses eye opening (1–4), verbal response (1–5), and motor response (1–6), with a
total score of 3–15. A score of 10 suggests deficits across all categories, as no single category
alone can account for the reduction from a perfect score of 15. Thus, all categories likely
contribute.
Question 7:
During a skin assessment, the nurse notes a 2 cm, irregular, pigmented lesion with asymmetry.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
(A) Document the finding and monitor
(B) Apply a topical antibiotic
(C) Refer the patient to a dermatologist
(D) Cleanse the lesion with saline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
3
