ANCC Exam 2 Prep with Practice Questions and Solutions
ANCC Exam 2 Prep with Practice Questions and Solutions A 46 year old male with a history of bipolar disorder comes for a regular follow up appointment with a PMHNP and presents with complaints of severe vomiting, diarrhea, muscle weakness, blurred vision, and ataxia. The patient is currently taking 900 mg of lithium daily. The psychiatric nurse practitioner identifies these symptoms as signs of lithium toxicity. What is the priority action of the PMHNP? A. Maintains medication regimen and monitors the symptoms. B. Tells the patient to stop taking lithium in orders of serum lithium level. C. Order an electrocardiogram. D. Take the patient's vital signs. ANSWER B. Tells the patient to stop taking lithium in orders of serum lithium level. For 12 years, a 65 year old patient with bipolar affective disorder has been treated with lithium 900 mg daily. When oral hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily is added for hypertension, the patient develops nausea, vomiting, ataxia, and muscle weakness, and the patient's serum lithium level is 2.0 the interaction of the lithium and thiazide diuretic has induced: A. Hypokalemia. B. Hyponatremia. C. Increased Renal clearance of lithium. D. Reduced renal clearance of lithium. ANSWER D. Reduced renal clearance of lithium
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ancc exam 2 prep with practice questions and solut