2026 ATI RN
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
5 FULL SET EXAMS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• EACH SET HAS 180 questions
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
SET 1 EXAM ....................................................................... 2
SET 2 EXAM .....................................................................77
SET 3 EXAM .................................................................. 151
SET 4 EXAM .................................................................. 222
SET 5 EXAM .................................................................. 412
PREVIEW QUESTIONS
BELOW !!!!!!!
SET 1 EXAM
Question 1
A home health nurse is caring for a child who has Lyme disease. Which of the
following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Ensure the state health department has been notified
B. Administer antitoxin
C. Educate the family to avoid sharing personal belongings
D. Assess for skin necrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lyme disease is a reportable communicable disease in most states. The
nurse must ensure proper notification to public health authorities. Antitoxin is not used
for Lyme disease (antibiotics are). Skin necrosis is not a characteristic finding of Lyme
disease; erythema migrans is the classic rash.
,Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted to the hospital. (NGN - Select
5 actions the nurse should take)
Select all that apply:
[ ] Provide frequent rest periods
[ ] Restrict client sodium intake
[ ] Advise client to avoid using soap and alcohol-based lotions
[ ] Instruct the client to avoid blowing their nose forcefully
[ ] Assess the client's level of orientation
Correct Answers: All 5 options should be selected
Rationale: These interventions are appropriate for a client with potential increased
intracranial pressure or post-operative cranial surgery. Rest periods reduce metabolic
demands; sodium restriction prevents fluid retention; avoiding soap/alcohol prevents
skin irritation; avoiding nose blowing prevents increased ICP; assessing orientation
monitors neurological status.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who has a vented NG tube set to low intermittent
suction and has vomited. Which of the following actions should the nurse
perform first?
A. Administer an antiemetic medication
B. Evaluate functioning of the suction device
C. Provide oral hygiene care
D. Replace the NG tube
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: According to the nursing process and priority-setting framework, the nurse
must first assess the equipment. If the suction device is not functioning properly, gastric
contents cannot drain, leading to vomiting. The nurse must check for kinks, proper
suction settings, and tube placement before implementing other interventions.
Question 4
While performing a routine assessment, a nurse notices fraying on the electrical
cord of a client's continuous passive motion (CPM) device. Which of the following
,actions should the nurse take first?
A. Initiate a requisition for a replacement CPM device
B. Report the defect to the equipment maintenance staff
C. Remove the device from the room
D. Ensure the device inspection sticker is current
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Client safety is the priority. A frayed electrical cord poses an immediate fire
and electrocution hazard. The nurse must remove the device from the room immediately
to prevent harm, then follow up with reporting and replacement.
Question 5
A nurse is setting up a sterile field to perform wound irrigation for a client. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take when pouring the sterile solution?
A. Remove the cap and place it sterile-side up on a clean surface
B. Place sterile gauze over areas of spilled
C. Hold the bottle in the center of the sterile field when pouring the solution
D. Hold the irrigation solution bottle with the label facing away from the palm of the hand
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When pouring sterile solutions, the cap should be removed and placed
sterile-side up to maintain sterility. The bottle should be held outside the sterile field to
prevent contamination. The label should face the palm to prevent solution from running
over the label.
Question 6
A nurse is creating a plan of care for a female client who has recurrent urinary
tract infections. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in
the plan?
A. Wear loose-fitting underwear
B. Take a bubble bath after intercourse
C. Drink four 240-mL (8-oz) glasses of water each day
D. Void every 5-6 hr during the day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Loose-fitting cotton underwear promotes air circulation and reduces
moisture, creating a less favorable environment for bacterial growth. Bubble baths can
,irritate the urethra; adequate fluid intake requires more than 4 glasses (approximately
2,000-3,000 mL recommended); voiding should occur every 2-3 hours and after
intercourse.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a newborn. Fill in the blank. (NGN)
The client is at risk for developing and .
A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
B. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answers: Transient tachypnea of the newborn AND Hypoglycemia
Rationale: Newborns, especially those born via cesarean section or to mothers with
diabetes, are at risk for transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) due to delayed fluid
clearance and hypoglycemia due to immature glycogen stores and glucose regulation.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for an infant who has gastroenteritis. Which of the following
assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Pale and a 24-hr fluid deficit of 30 mL
B. Sunken fontanels and dry mucous membranes
C. Decreased appetite and irritability
D. Temperature 38°C and pulse rate of 124/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sunken fontanels and dry mucous membranes are signs of moderate to
severe dehydration requiring immediate intervention. A 30 mL deficit is minimal;
decreased appetite and mild irritability are expected; temperature of 38°C and pulse of
124/min are elevated but not as critical as dehydration signs.
Question 10
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a depressive disorder and a new
prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I can continue to take St. John's wort while taking this medication"
B. "I know it will be a couple of weeks before the medication helps me feel better"
,C. "I expect this medication to raise my blood pressure"
D. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline require 2-4 weeks to achieve
therapeutic effects. St. John's wort interacts dangerously with antidepressants
(serotonin syndrome). Amitriptyline may cause orthostatic hypotension, not
hypertension. It can be taken with food to reduce GI upset.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who is immobile. Which of the following
interventions is appropriate to prevent contracture?
A. Position a pillow under the client's knee
B. Place a towel roll under the client's neck
C. Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications
D. Compare new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Medication reconciliation involves comparing current medications against
new orders to prevent errors, omissions, and interactions. Current list should be verified
with client/family; supplements are included; adverse effects are education, not
reconciliation.
Question 141
A nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old with varicella to the peds unit. Which
action should the nurse take?
A. Assign the child to a negative pressure room
B. Use droplet precautions when caring for the child
C. Assess the child for Koplik spots
D. Administer aspirin for fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Varicella (chickenpox) requires airborne precautions and negative pressure
room. Droplet precautions are insufficient; Koplik spots indicate measles; aspirin is
contraindicated (Reye's syndrome).
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cesarean delivery is recommended if active genital lesions are present at
labor onset to prevent neonatal herpes transmission. Cortisone worsens viral infections;
ibuprofen is contraindicated in third trimester; cord blood testing is not standard.
Question 91
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The child is at high risk for developing as evidenced by the child's
.
Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome as evidenced by the child's paresthesia
Rationale: Paresthesia (tingling/numbness) indicates nerve compression, an early sign
of compartment syndrome requiring emergency intervention.
Question 92
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The nurse should anticipate a prescription for and .
Correct Answer: Surgical consultation and Pain medication
Rationale: Compartment syndrome requires emergent fasciotomy (surgical
consultation) and pain management.
SET 4 Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who refuses a blood transfusion. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Notify risk management about the client's refusal
B. Document the client's refusal in the medical record
C. Inform the client that the transfusion is mandatory
D. Suggest that the client explore alternative therapies
,Correct Answer: B. Document the client's refusal in the medical record
Rationale: Clients have the right to refuse treatment, even life-saving interventions. The
nurse's primary responsibility is to document this refusal accurately and thoroughly. This
protects both the client and the healthcare team legally and ensures continuity of care.
A is incorrect: Risk management should be notified only if there are legal or
complex ethical concerns requiring review, not as a routine response to treatment
refusal.
C is incorrect: Clients cannot be forced to accept treatment; informed consent
includes the right to refuse.
D is incorrect: While exploring alternatives may be appropriate, the immediate
priority is proper documentation of the refusal.
NCLEX Client Need Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of
Care)
Cognitive Level: Application
Section 2: Cardiovascular & Respiratory Disorders
D: Fetal anemia typically causes tachycardia (compensatory) or late
decelerations, not bradycardia.
NCLEX Client Need Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Section 52: Delegation Process
52. A nurse has identified tasks to delegate to a group of assistive personnel (AP)
after receiving change-of-shift report. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse
should follow when delegating tasks to the APs.
Steps:
A. Monitor progress of task completion with each AP
B. Review the skill level and qualifications of each AP
C. Evaluate the APs' performance of each task
D. Communicate appropriate tasks to the APs with specific expectations
,Correct Sequence: B → D → A → C
Table
Step Action Rationale
1. B Review skill level and Ensures right person for right task; matches
qualifications complexity to competency
2. D Communicate tasks with Right direction/communication; clear, concise,
specific expectations specific instructions
3. A Monitor progress Right supervision; ensures safety and
appropriate performance
, 105. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has cancer and a
prescription for a fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Apply the patch to your forearm
B. Remove the patch for 8 hours every day to reduce the risk of tolerance
C. Avoid high-fiber foods while taking this medication
D. Avoid hot tubs while wearing the patch
Correct Answer: D. Avoid hot tubs while wearing the patch
Rationale: Heat increases fentanyl absorption and can cause fatal overdose:
Hot tubs, heating pads, saunas, fever increase blood flow to skin
Increased absorption leads to increased plasma levels
Risk of respiratory depression
Proper patch application:
Chest, back, upper arm (not forearm - too much movement)
Rotate sites; apply to intact, non-irradiated skin
Change every 72 hours
Never cut patches
Why others are incorrect:
A: Forearm has too much movement; better sites are chest, back, upper arm.
B: Patches worn continuously for 72 hours; removing causes withdrawal and
breakthrough pain.
C: High-fiber foods recommended to prevent opioid-induced constipation.
NCLEX Client Need Category: Physiological Integrity (Pharmacological and Parenteral
Therapies)
Cognitive Level: Application
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
5 FULL SET EXAMS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• EACH SET HAS 180 questions
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
SET 1 EXAM ....................................................................... 2
SET 2 EXAM .....................................................................77
SET 3 EXAM .................................................................. 151
SET 4 EXAM .................................................................. 222
SET 5 EXAM .................................................................. 412
PREVIEW QUESTIONS
BELOW !!!!!!!
SET 1 EXAM
Question 1
A home health nurse is caring for a child who has Lyme disease. Which of the
following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Ensure the state health department has been notified
B. Administer antitoxin
C. Educate the family to avoid sharing personal belongings
D. Assess for skin necrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lyme disease is a reportable communicable disease in most states. The
nurse must ensure proper notification to public health authorities. Antitoxin is not used
for Lyme disease (antibiotics are). Skin necrosis is not a characteristic finding of Lyme
disease; erythema migrans is the classic rash.
,Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted to the hospital. (NGN - Select
5 actions the nurse should take)
Select all that apply:
[ ] Provide frequent rest periods
[ ] Restrict client sodium intake
[ ] Advise client to avoid using soap and alcohol-based lotions
[ ] Instruct the client to avoid blowing their nose forcefully
[ ] Assess the client's level of orientation
Correct Answers: All 5 options should be selected
Rationale: These interventions are appropriate for a client with potential increased
intracranial pressure or post-operative cranial surgery. Rest periods reduce metabolic
demands; sodium restriction prevents fluid retention; avoiding soap/alcohol prevents
skin irritation; avoiding nose blowing prevents increased ICP; assessing orientation
monitors neurological status.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who has a vented NG tube set to low intermittent
suction and has vomited. Which of the following actions should the nurse
perform first?
A. Administer an antiemetic medication
B. Evaluate functioning of the suction device
C. Provide oral hygiene care
D. Replace the NG tube
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: According to the nursing process and priority-setting framework, the nurse
must first assess the equipment. If the suction device is not functioning properly, gastric
contents cannot drain, leading to vomiting. The nurse must check for kinks, proper
suction settings, and tube placement before implementing other interventions.
Question 4
While performing a routine assessment, a nurse notices fraying on the electrical
cord of a client's continuous passive motion (CPM) device. Which of the following
,actions should the nurse take first?
A. Initiate a requisition for a replacement CPM device
B. Report the defect to the equipment maintenance staff
C. Remove the device from the room
D. Ensure the device inspection sticker is current
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Client safety is the priority. A frayed electrical cord poses an immediate fire
and electrocution hazard. The nurse must remove the device from the room immediately
to prevent harm, then follow up with reporting and replacement.
Question 5
A nurse is setting up a sterile field to perform wound irrigation for a client. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take when pouring the sterile solution?
A. Remove the cap and place it sterile-side up on a clean surface
B. Place sterile gauze over areas of spilled
C. Hold the bottle in the center of the sterile field when pouring the solution
D. Hold the irrigation solution bottle with the label facing away from the palm of the hand
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When pouring sterile solutions, the cap should be removed and placed
sterile-side up to maintain sterility. The bottle should be held outside the sterile field to
prevent contamination. The label should face the palm to prevent solution from running
over the label.
Question 6
A nurse is creating a plan of care for a female client who has recurrent urinary
tract infections. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in
the plan?
A. Wear loose-fitting underwear
B. Take a bubble bath after intercourse
C. Drink four 240-mL (8-oz) glasses of water each day
D. Void every 5-6 hr during the day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Loose-fitting cotton underwear promotes air circulation and reduces
moisture, creating a less favorable environment for bacterial growth. Bubble baths can
,irritate the urethra; adequate fluid intake requires more than 4 glasses (approximately
2,000-3,000 mL recommended); voiding should occur every 2-3 hours and after
intercourse.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a newborn. Fill in the blank. (NGN)
The client is at risk for developing and .
A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
B. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answers: Transient tachypnea of the newborn AND Hypoglycemia
Rationale: Newborns, especially those born via cesarean section or to mothers with
diabetes, are at risk for transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) due to delayed fluid
clearance and hypoglycemia due to immature glycogen stores and glucose regulation.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for an infant who has gastroenteritis. Which of the following
assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Pale and a 24-hr fluid deficit of 30 mL
B. Sunken fontanels and dry mucous membranes
C. Decreased appetite and irritability
D. Temperature 38°C and pulse rate of 124/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sunken fontanels and dry mucous membranes are signs of moderate to
severe dehydration requiring immediate intervention. A 30 mL deficit is minimal;
decreased appetite and mild irritability are expected; temperature of 38°C and pulse of
124/min are elevated but not as critical as dehydration signs.
Question 10
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a depressive disorder and a new
prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I can continue to take St. John's wort while taking this medication"
B. "I know it will be a couple of weeks before the medication helps me feel better"
,C. "I expect this medication to raise my blood pressure"
D. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline require 2-4 weeks to achieve
therapeutic effects. St. John's wort interacts dangerously with antidepressants
(serotonin syndrome). Amitriptyline may cause orthostatic hypotension, not
hypertension. It can be taken with food to reduce GI upset.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who is immobile. Which of the following
interventions is appropriate to prevent contracture?
A. Position a pillow under the client's knee
B. Place a towel roll under the client's neck
C. Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications
D. Compare new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Medication reconciliation involves comparing current medications against
new orders to prevent errors, omissions, and interactions. Current list should be verified
with client/family; supplements are included; adverse effects are education, not
reconciliation.
Question 141
A nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old with varicella to the peds unit. Which
action should the nurse take?
A. Assign the child to a negative pressure room
B. Use droplet precautions when caring for the child
C. Assess the child for Koplik spots
D. Administer aspirin for fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Varicella (chickenpox) requires airborne precautions and negative pressure
room. Droplet precautions are insufficient; Koplik spots indicate measles; aspirin is
contraindicated (Reye's syndrome).
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cesarean delivery is recommended if active genital lesions are present at
labor onset to prevent neonatal herpes transmission. Cortisone worsens viral infections;
ibuprofen is contraindicated in third trimester; cord blood testing is not standard.
Question 91
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The child is at high risk for developing as evidenced by the child's
.
Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome as evidenced by the child's paresthesia
Rationale: Paresthesia (tingling/numbness) indicates nerve compression, an early sign
of compartment syndrome requiring emergency intervention.
Question 92
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The nurse should anticipate a prescription for and .
Correct Answer: Surgical consultation and Pain medication
Rationale: Compartment syndrome requires emergent fasciotomy (surgical
consultation) and pain management.
SET 4 Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who refuses a blood transfusion. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Notify risk management about the client's refusal
B. Document the client's refusal in the medical record
C. Inform the client that the transfusion is mandatory
D. Suggest that the client explore alternative therapies
,Correct Answer: B. Document the client's refusal in the medical record
Rationale: Clients have the right to refuse treatment, even life-saving interventions. The
nurse's primary responsibility is to document this refusal accurately and thoroughly. This
protects both the client and the healthcare team legally and ensures continuity of care.
A is incorrect: Risk management should be notified only if there are legal or
complex ethical concerns requiring review, not as a routine response to treatment
refusal.
C is incorrect: Clients cannot be forced to accept treatment; informed consent
includes the right to refuse.
D is incorrect: While exploring alternatives may be appropriate, the immediate
priority is proper documentation of the refusal.
NCLEX Client Need Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of
Care)
Cognitive Level: Application
Section 2: Cardiovascular & Respiratory Disorders
D: Fetal anemia typically causes tachycardia (compensatory) or late
decelerations, not bradycardia.
NCLEX Client Need Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Section 52: Delegation Process
52. A nurse has identified tasks to delegate to a group of assistive personnel (AP)
after receiving change-of-shift report. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse
should follow when delegating tasks to the APs.
Steps:
A. Monitor progress of task completion with each AP
B. Review the skill level and qualifications of each AP
C. Evaluate the APs' performance of each task
D. Communicate appropriate tasks to the APs with specific expectations
,Correct Sequence: B → D → A → C
Table
Step Action Rationale
1. B Review skill level and Ensures right person for right task; matches
qualifications complexity to competency
2. D Communicate tasks with Right direction/communication; clear, concise,
specific expectations specific instructions
3. A Monitor progress Right supervision; ensures safety and
appropriate performance
, 105. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has cancer and a
prescription for a fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Apply the patch to your forearm
B. Remove the patch for 8 hours every day to reduce the risk of tolerance
C. Avoid high-fiber foods while taking this medication
D. Avoid hot tubs while wearing the patch
Correct Answer: D. Avoid hot tubs while wearing the patch
Rationale: Heat increases fentanyl absorption and can cause fatal overdose:
Hot tubs, heating pads, saunas, fever increase blood flow to skin
Increased absorption leads to increased plasma levels
Risk of respiratory depression
Proper patch application:
Chest, back, upper arm (not forearm - too much movement)
Rotate sites; apply to intact, non-irradiated skin
Change every 72 hours
Never cut patches
Why others are incorrect:
A: Forearm has too much movement; better sites are chest, back, upper arm.
B: Patches worn continuously for 72 hours; removing causes withdrawal and
breakthrough pain.
C: High-fiber foods recommended to prevent opioid-induced constipation.
NCLEX Client Need Category: Physiological Integrity (Pharmacological and Parenteral
Therapies)
Cognitive Level: Application
