2026 Accurate Real Exam Questions and
Verified Correct Answers JUST RELEASED
What symptom would be unexpected in a diagnosis of depression?
A.Anhedonia
B.Low self-esteem
C.Apathy
D.Apraxia - answer>>>Answer: D. Apraxia
Apraxia is characterized by loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned purposeful
movements despite the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements. Apraxia is not a
sign or symptom of depression; it is a disorder of motor planning caused by damage to specific
areas of the cerebrum. Common signs of depression include anhedonia (loss of interest in
activities that the patient normally finds pleasurable), unintentional weight loss or gain, fatigue,
change in appetite, insomnia or hypersomnia, feelings of guilt and worthlessness, and recurrent
thoughts of suicide
Which of the following is an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)?
A.Feeding self
B.Managing bladder and bowel elimination
C.Personal hygiene and grooming
D.Grocery shopping - answer>>>Answer: D. Grocery shopping
Grocery shopping, housework, and managing one's finances are considered IADLs. An IADL is more
complex than an activity of daily living (ADL), such as self-feeding, management of elimination,
and personal hygiene.
A 76-year-old male patient with a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)
presents to the nurse practitioner (NP) with hyperlipidemia. Following current guidelines on the
management of blood cholesterol, which medication should the NP prescribe?
A.Low-intensity statin
B.Moderate-intensity statin
C.Moderate- to high-intensity statin
D.High-intensity statin - answer>>>Answer: B. Moderate-intensity statin
Current guidelines on the management of blood cholesterol recommend moderate-intensity
statins for patients older than 75 years with ASCVD. If a patient presents with ASCVD and is age 21
to 75 years, the guidelines recommend a high-intensity statin such as atorvastatin or rosuvastatin.
The nurse practitioner is reviewing the medical record of a 6-month-old infant with normocytic
hemolytic anemia and notes an electrophoresis result of hemoglobin S with a 20% concentration
of hemoglobin F (fetal hemoglobin). Which additional diagnosis is most likely?
A.Aplastic anemia
B.Hemolytic anemia
C.Sickle cell anemia
,D.Thalassemia major - answer>>>Answer: C. Sickle cell anemia
A patient with normocytic hemolytic anemia who has electrophoresis results of hemoglobin S with
a 20% concentration of hemoglobin F has sickle cell anemia. Electrophoresis is not used to
diagnose hemolytic or aplastic anemia. Thalassemia major appears within the first 2 years of life
and is associated with life-threatening anemia. Thalassemia major is associated with
nonhemolytic, normocytic anemia.
A 69-year-old patient presents with acute hearing loss. Upon physical examination, the nurse
practitioner finds a cerumen impaction. Which type of hearing loss is expected?
A.Central
B.Sensorineural
C.Conductive
D.Lateral - answer>>>Answer: C. Conductive
Cerumen (ear wax) is obstructive to the middle and/or outer ear and is a common condition in
older adult patients. Any type of obstruction to sound waves will cause conductive hearing loss.
Sensorineural hearing loss occurs when there is damage to vital ear structures such as the cochlea,
vestibule, and/or auditory nerve pathways. Trauma, disease, or ototoxic drugs can cause
sensorineural hearing loss. A lesion in the central auditory pathway or the auditory cortex causes
central hearing loss. The auditory cortex processes and interprets the sounds amplified and
received by the ossicles and cochlear hair cells. Lateral hearing loss occurs when a patient has
difficulty hearing or deafness that affects only one ear.
Which of the following effects is seen in patients using the medroxyprogesterone injection (Depo-
Provera) for more than 5 years?
A.Melasma
B.Amenorrhea
C.Weight loss
D.Headache - answer>>>Answer: B. Amenorrhea
Depo-Provera (contraceptive injection) is a progesterone hormone that causes cessation of
periods. One common side effect seen in those who have been taking Depo-Provera for more than
5 years is amenorrhea. As patients continue using Depo-Provera, fewer experience irregular
bleeding and more experience amenorrhea. By month 12, amenorrhea was reported by 55% of
users, and by month 24, amenorrhea was reported by 68% of users.
A middle-aged man with type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia. During
the physical exam, the nurse practitioner (NP) notes raised, sharply demarcated yellowish patches
on the inner canthi of both eyes and on the upper and lower eyelids that are symmetric and
nontender. The NP diagnoses which of the following conditions?
A.Psoriasis
B.Warts
C.Xerosis cutis
D.Xanthelasma - answer>>>Answer: D. Xanthelasma
Xanthelasma is a benign subcutaneous lesion composed of cholesterol that usually develops
around the eyelids. Approximately 50% of patients with xanthelasma have hyperlipidemia. The NP
should order a fasting lipid profile. If the patient desires treatment, the lesions can be removed by
laser, application of trichloroacetic acid, or surgery. Xerosis cutis is a medical term for extremely
,dry skin. Psoriasis lesions can occur on the eyelid area. Warts are usually not located on the inner
canthus or eyelids bilaterally and are not yellow in color.
A middle-aged male patient has recently been diagnosed with renal insufficiency. He has a history
of hypertension and has been on lisinopril (Accupril) for many years. Which of the following
laboratory values should be carefully monitored?
A.Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
B.Serum creatinine and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)
C.Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
D.Serum sodium, potassium, and magnesium - answer>>>Answer: B. Serum creatinine and
estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)
One of the best tests for assessing renal function is the eGFR, which requires the creatinine value
so that it can be calculated using a mathematical formula (e.g., Cockcroft-Gault equation). AST and
ALT are used to evaluate liver function. Electrolytes are not used to evaluate renal function.
A young adult patient complains of a 2-week history of facial pressure that worsens when bending
over. The patient complains of tooth pain in the upper molars on the right side of the face. On
physical exam, lung and heart sounds are normal. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A.Migraine without aura
B.Chronic sinusitis
C.Acute sinusitis
D.Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorder - answer>>>Answer: C. Acute sinusitis
Signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis include headache, facial pain that worsens with bending
over, eye/ear pressure and pain, aching in upper jaw/teeth, reduced smell and taste, cough
(especially at night due to the nasal drainage), sore throat, bad breath, and fatigue. Chronic
sinusitis presents with similar symptoms, but it is not diagnosed until symptoms have persisted for
at least 12 weeks. Migraine without aura causes pain, but it is not typically made worse by
bending forward. Migraines also frequently present with nausea and light and/or sound
sensitivity. TMJ disorder causes pain that can extend into the face, but the pain originates in the
jaw and the muscles surrounding it.
A bulla may be described as a:
A.Solid nodule <1 cm in size
B.Superficial vesicle filled with serous fluid >1 cm in size
C.Maculopapular lesion
D.Shallow ulcer - answer>>>Answer: B. Superficial vesicle filled with serous fluid >1 cm in size
A bulla is a blister—a circumscribed, fluid-containing, elevated lesion of the skin, usually >5 mm in
diameter.
A 28-year-old male patient is evaluated by the nurse practitioner for frequent episodes of
psychotic delusions and paranoia. He has taken risperidone (Risperdal) in the past but states that
the drug was not effective. Which medication will the nurse practitioner prescribe?
A.Clozapine (Versacloz)
B.Amitriptyline (Elavil)
C.Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
D.Lithium carbonate (Eskalith) - answer>>>Answer: A. Clozapine (Versacloz)
, Clozapine (Versacloz) has been shown to decrease psychotic symptoms and episodes in patients
with resistance to first-line antipsychotics. Amitriptyline (Elavil) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is
used to treat symptoms of depression. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication
used to treat major depressive disorder and seasonal affective disorder. Lithium carbonate
(Eskalith) is an antimanic agent used to treat manic-depressive disorder (bipolar disorder).
A middle-aged male patient was the sole survivor of a fatal car crash that occurred 3 years ago.
After a long recovery, he returned to his job but reports nightmares and visions of the crash. He
reports excessive drinking to deal with these recurrent flashbacks, and his lack of sleep and
drinking have caused him to miss a significant amount of work. Which drug class is first-line
treatment for this patient?
A.Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B.Antimanic mood stabilizers
C.Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
D.Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) - answer>>>Answer: A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs)
The patient is experiencing posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD occurs after an exposure to
a traumatic event and often causes nightmares, recollection of the event, and feelings of
helplessness and hopelessness. The first-line prescriptive treatment for PTSD is an SSRI. Antimanic
mood stabilizers (e.g., lithium) are used to treat manic episodes such as those experienced with
bipolar disorder. MAOIs are used to treat depression and anxiety disorders that are not responsive
to other medications. TCAs are used to treat depression and chronic pain disorders.
Which of the following medications is associated with a high incidence of erectile dysfunction?
A.Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
B.Clonazepam (Klonopin)
C.Paroxetine (Paxil)
D.Doxepin (Sinequan) - answer>>>Answer: C. Paroxetine (Paxil)
Paroxetine (Paxil) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that causes sexual adverse
effects (impotence, inability to reach orgasm) in up to 50% of those who take it. Of all the SSRIs, it
seems to be the one with the highest risk of erectile dysfunction. It can also affect a woman's
ability to achieve orgasm. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) is an anticonvulsant, clonazepam (Klonopin) is a
benzodiazepine, and doxepin (Sinequan) is a tricyclic antidepressant; they each have a lower
incidence of sexual side effects compared with paroxetine (Paxil).
A 76-year-old female patient presents to the primary care clinic for her annual check-up. The
nurse practitioner (NP) notes that the patient's height has decreased by an inch in the last year
and that her back has a "hump-like" deformity. How will the NP document these findings?
A.Lordosis
B.Kyphosis
C.Scoliosis
D.Osteoarthritis - answer>>>Answer: B. Kyphosis
Older adults can lose 1 to 3 inches of height as they age. The height loss is caused by compression
fractures of the vertebrae, which most commonly occur after age 70 years. The type of curvature
that is generally caused by osteoporosis of the vertebrae is called kyphosis. It has the appearance
of a "hump" in the thoracic region and is most common in elderly women, although it can appear