NU 606 EXAM 2 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY PRACTICE TEST 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED CORRECT SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS RECENT VERSION

NU 606 EXAM 2 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY PRACTICE TEST 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED CORRECT SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS RECENT VERSION 1. What is the body's first line of defense? - ANSWER mechanical barrier such as intact skin and mucous membrane 2. Identify the body's second and third lines of defense. - ANSWER second: processes of phagocytosis and inflammation; third: the immune system response 3. Which of the three lines of defense are specific? Explain what is meant by "specific defense mechanism." - ANSWER The immune system is the specific defense mechanism of the body. It provides protection by stimulating a unique response following exposure to foreign substances. 4. Define phagocytosis. Identify types of cells that are phagocytic. - ANSWER process by which neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages engulf and destroy bacteria, cellular debris, or foreign material 5. What is inflammation, and what is its basic function? - ANSWER Inflammation is the body's nonspecific response to injury that involves increased blood flow to the area to localize and remove an injurious agent. Inflammation can cause redness, swelling, warmth, and pain; loss of function is also possible. It may be caused by direct physical damage such as cuts or sprains, caustic chemicals such as acids or drain cleaners, ischemia or infarction, allergic reactions, extremes of heat or cold, foreign bodies such as splinters or glass, and infection. 6. Identify the two main events of the "vascular response" that occur during an inflammatory response. Explain their function as part of the response and the direct effects of each event. - ANSWER The two main events are vasodilation, and increased capillary permeability in response to a chemical mediator (e.g., histamine, serotonin) released at the site of injury. This allows for the accumulation in the area of fluid (to dilute any toxic substances) and specific plasma proteins such as globulins or antibodies (to react with specific antigens) and fibrinogen (to form a fibrin mesh to localize the problem). 7. Identify the four cardinal signs of an inflammatory response and the cause of each. - ANSWER • Redness (rubor or erythema) Due to increased blood flow to the damaged area • Heat Also due to increased blood flow • Swelling (edema) Caused by the shift of protein and fluid into the interstitial space • Pain Due to increased pressure of fluid on the nerves 8. Outline the sequence of events involved in the cellular response of inflammation. - ANSWER • chemotaxis • margination • emigration (diapedesis) • phagocytosis and subsequent release of lysosomal enzymes 9. Involved in cell-mediated immunity - ANSWER neutrophils 10. Elevated during allergic responses - ANSWER eosinophils 11. Secrete histamine - ANSWER basophils, mast cells 12. The first cells to migrate to an injured area - ANSWER neutrophils 13. Involved in antibody production - ANSWER T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes 14. Elevated during chronic inflammation - ANSWER monocytes 15. A source of macrophages - ANSWER monocytes 16. Phagocytize microorganisms - ANSWER neutrophils, macrophages, monocytes 17. List the systemic effects of inflammation, and identify the reason that each of these manifestations occurs. - ANSWER fever due to the release of pyrogens by leukocytes and macrophages; malaise, fatigue, headache, and anorexia 18. Potential complications that may develop as a result of inflammation. - ANSWER infection in inflamed tissue, deep ulcers (from severe or prolonged inflammation), skeletal muscle spasms or strong muscle contractions, local complications such as tissue destruction and scarring, immobility due to pain or edema (edema compresses organs such as blood vessels and airways) 19. What is the four-letter acronym that lists the approach to first aid for injury related inflammation? - ANSWER R = Rest allows time for healing, minimizing further pain and irritation to the injured area. I = Early application of cold causes vasoconstriction, decreasing pain and edema. C = Compression reduces edema and pain by activating alternate sensory pathways. E = Elevation improves fluid flow away from the damaged area. 20. Identify the differences between nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and glucocorticoids or steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. - ANSWER NSAIDs are analgesic and antipyretic. They may cause allergic reactions, slow blood clotting, and cause nausea and/or stomach ulceration. Steroids decrease immune responses and increase the risk for infection, hypertension, and edema. They may also cause osteoporosis and skeletal muscle wasting. 21. Identify the differences between NSAIDs and acetaminophen. - ANSWER NSAIDs are antiinflammatory. They may cause allergic reactions and slow blood clotting. Acetaminophen has no antiinflammatory action. Overuse at higher dosages than recommended may cause kidney and liver damage. 22. Identify additional nonpharmacologic therapies/treatment that could be used to treat inflammation, particularly conditions that are chronic, such as arthritis. - ANSWER heat, physiotherapy, adequate nutrition and hydration, mild to moderate exercise, elastic stockings to reduce fluid accumulation 23. Differentiate between the processes of resolution and regeneration. - ANSWER Resolution occurs when there is minimal tissue damage, the damage is repaired, and cells recover and resume normal function in a short time. Regeneration is the healing process that occurs in tissues whose cells are capable of mitosis (e.g., epithelial cells of the skin, gastrointestinal tract). The damaged cells are replaced by the proliferation of nearby undamaged cells. 24. Multiple infections, including those caused by microorganisms of low virulence - ANSWER Nonfunctional WBCs being produced; diminished primary and secondary defense against infection 25. Increased bleeding and even severe hemorrhage - ANSWER Thrombocytopenia 26. Kidney stones - ANSWER Rapid turnover of cells leading to hyperuricemia 27. Lymphadenopathy - ANSWER Excess production of abnormal leukocytes causes enlargement and congestion of lymphoid tissue 28. Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly - ANSWER Excess production of abnormal leukocytes causes enlargement and congestion 29. Bone pain - ANSWER Excessive cell production in the marrow causes pain due to pressure on nerves 30. Describe the treatments used for the patient with leukemia, including the adverse effects or complications of each. - ANSWER Chemotherapy, singly or in combinations, is the primary treatment. Adverse effects include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, hair loss, and skin breakdown; some drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis. If ineffective, bone marrow transplantation is another intervention. Biologic agents, such as interferon to stimulate the immune system, may also be used. 31. Describe the different prognoses for the types of leukemia. - ANSWER The best prognosis is in ALL in children between 1 and 9 years of age (less so in adolescents). The prognosis is poor in adults, especially those with AML. Patients with chronic leukemia may live up to 10 years. Prognosis depends on WBC and blast counts at diagnosis. 32. Involves both excessive bleeding and clotting - ANSWER disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) 33. Decreased or lack of intrinsic factor production - ANSWER pernicious anemia 34. Characterized by primitive blast cells - ANSWER leukemia (especially acute) 35. Sex-linked bleeding disorder - ANSWER hemophilia A 36. Increased production of erythrocytes - ANSWER polycythemia 37. Frequent adverse effect of chemotherapy - ANSWER aplastic anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia 38. May result in impaired growth and development - ANSWER sickle cell anemia 39. Common in individuals from the Mediterranean area - ANSWER thalassemia 40. May be accompanied by jaundice - ANSWER sickle cell anemia 41. May be accompanied by loss of coordination - ANSWER pernicious anemia, vitamin B12 deficiency anemia 42. A neoplastic disorder involving the red blood cells - ANSWER polycythemia vera 43. More prevalent in individuals with Down syndrome - ANSWER leukemia 44. predisposes individuals to infections - ANSWER eukemia, anemia (especially aplastic and sickle 45. Acute Leukemia - ANSWER Childhood and young adults, Acute onset; rapid development of manifestations, high number of blast cells, some type have very good response to treatments 46. Chronic Leukemia - ANSWER Older individuals, Insidious onset, milder, slower progression, mild onset of symptoms, fewer blast cells, treatment response depends on general health 47. What type of cell forms the diagnosis for Hodgkin disease? - ANSWER Giant Reed-Sternberg cell is used for diagnosis. It is characterized as a giant irregular cell present in the lymph node. 48. Hodgkin disease stage I - ANSWER single lymph node or region 49. Hodgkin disease stage II - ANSWER multiple regions on same side of diaphragm 50. Hodgkin disease stage III - ANSWER lymph node regions on both sides of diaphragm 51. Hodgkin disease stage IV - ANSWER widespread; liver and spleen 52. Describe the signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease, through the four stages. - ANSWER large, painless, nontender lymph node, usually in the neck; splenomegaly and enlarged lymph nodes at other locations later; general signs of cancer such as weight loss, anemia, low-grade fever, night sweats, and fatigue; recurrent infection 53. Identify treatments for Hodgkin disease. - ANSWER radiation, chemotherapy (especially ABVD combo), and surgery 54. Explain how non-Hodgkin lymphoma differs from Hodgkin disease. - ANSWER Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is distinguished by multiple node involvement scattered throughout the body in a nonorganized pattern of widespread metastasis; intestinal nodes are frequently involved in the early stages. 55. Define multiple myeloma. - ANSWER a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology involving plasma cells 56. Describe the signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma, including the reason that each occurs. - ANSWER frequent infections due to impaired antibody production; bone pain due to production of excess plasma cells in the marrow; pathologic fractures due to the weakened bones; anemia and bleeding tendencies because blood cell production is compromised; and proteinuria due to altered kidney function. 57. Define virulence - ANSWER Virulence is the degree of pathogenicity of a microbe or pathogen. It can be enhanced by the production of exotoxins or endotoxins, destructive enzymes, spore formation, and the presence of bacterial capsules. 58. Immunodeficiency or immunodepression - ANSWER can result in opportunistic infections; relocation of normal flora to another body site can also result in the production of disease. 59. A person is considered to have AIDS when________________. - ANSWER Their CD4 count is less than 200cells/ml or if they have an AIDs defining illness 60. All of the following are true about Type I hypersensitivity reactions except: A. Type 2 Helper T cells, mast cells, and basophils are involved in Type I hypersensitivity reactions B. TH2 cell differentiation occurs in response to allergens C. TH2 cells block the differentiations of B cells into plasma cells D. IgE will bind to the cell membrane of mast cells - ANSWER C. TH2 cells blocks the differentiation of B cells into plasma cells 61. A client is being treated for an anaphylactic reaction after eating shrimp. Which class of antibodies mediates the anaphylaxis? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM - ANSWER B. IgE 62. One AIDs drug is a protease inhibitor. Which step in the infection process is targeted by this drug? A. Virus binding to the T cell B. Conversion of viral RNA to DNA C. Integration to become a provirus D. Formation of virus proteins - ANSWER D. Formation of virus proteins 63. What are the tunica layers of blood vessels? What does each layer contain? - ANSWER 1. Tunica Externa(outer coat) -Collagen and elastic fibers 2. Tunica media(middle coat) - Smooth muscle (Important in pathogenesis of many blood vessel diseases 3. Tunica intima(inner coat) - Internal elastic membrane, connective tissue, endothelial cells, and lumen 64. What is the function of each blood vessel tunica layer? - ANSWER - Externa: outer most layer -Media: middle, smooth muscle, changes in diameter of the blood vessel -Intima: innermost layer, lines lumen of blood vessel 65. What is hyperlipidemia? - ANSWER Elevation of any or all lipid profiles (triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol) and/or lipoproteins 66. What is vascular endothelium - ANSWER Continuous lining for entire vascular system -Food and O2 pass into tissue from blood -Wastes and CO2 pass from tissues into blood -Creates compounds that stimulate vasodilation/constriction, inflammation, promote clot formation in injured areas, and smooth muscles 67. How do lipids travel in plasma? - ANSWER They are encapsulated by lipoproteins 68. Which lipoproteins is the main carrier of cholesterol? - ANSWER LDL 69. What are the 5 main types of lipoproteins - ANSWER 1. Chylomicrons 2. Very-low-density lipoprotein 3. Intermediate-density lipoprotein 4. Low-density lipoprotein 5. High-density lipoprotein 70. Does HDL carry a lot of cholesterol and triglycerides? - ANSWER No, HDL is about 50% protein and carries less cholesterol and little triglyceride than LDL. 71. Describe the lipoprotein structure? - ANSWER Macromolecules made up of a hydrophobic core of cholesterol esters and triglycerides, surrounded by hydrophilic outer shell of soluble phospholipids and nonesterfied cholesterol. Apolipoproteins on the shell bind to lipids 72. _________ is known as bad cholesterol. - ANSWER LDL 73. _______ is known as good cholesterol. - ANSWER HDL 74. True or False: LDL is considered to be "good" cholesterol - ANSWER false