TCFP Driver/ Operator Questions With Correct Answers ||ALREADY GRADED A+ || Updated Version, With Aerial 2025

Balance- pressured system - ANSWER What type of foam system uses a diaphragm-type pressure control valve to sense and balance the pressures in the foam concentrate and water lines to the proportioner? Eductor - ANSWER A device that uses the Venturi principle to siphon a liquid in a water stream. The pressure at the throat of the device is below atmospheric pressure to flow into the water stream. Metering device - ANSWER A device that controls the flow of foam concentrate into the eductor. Mechanical generator - ANSWER An electronically powered fan used to aerate certain types of foams. Foam proportioner - ANSWER A device or method to add foam concentrate to water to make foam solution. In addition to a control pedestal on the turntable, NFPA® 1901 also requires a control station: - ANSWER in the platform. The function of the hydraulic system is to provide power for operating the various hydraulic components needed to: - ANSWER stabilize the apparatus and operate the aerial device. Which NFPA® standard establishes the number of sections and minimum reach required of an aerial apparatus? - ANSWER NFPA® 1901 Which of the following NFPA® standards now requires a two-way communication system on all aerial device apparatus? - ANSWER NFPA® 1901 Which standard establishes requirements for the quality of air in breathing air systems? - ANSWER NFPA® 1989 Which is the BEST potential sign of structural collapse that may be identified from an overhead look on an aerial device at a structural incident? - ANSWER Bulging walls What may cause dry, solid ground to become unstable during warm weather operations? - ANSWER Fireground runoff Generally SOPs involving apparatus placement at a fire scene apply to: - ANSWER aerial apparatus assigned to the initial response. When spotting an apparatus at a structural fire incident, driver/operators should be the MOST aware of: - ANSWER falling debris. Driver/operators should examine electrical cords daily: - ANSWER for damage to insulation and connections. NFPA® 1901 requires a protective water fog curtain nozzle to be provided on the bottom of an elevated platform that can be operated to: - ANSWER provide an additional barrier when the platform is exposed to high levels of heat. Which is a three-way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves? - ANSWER Selector valve When is the MOST likely time nondestructive testing will be performed on the aerial apparatus? - ANSWER After accidents Why do many fire departments prefer to use quints? - ANSWER Quints are capable of supplying their own elevated master streams. Which is a safety guideline unique to aircraft incidents? - ANSWER Do not drive through pools of jet fuel. Which term refers to positioning the apparatus in a location that provides the utmost efficiency for operating on the fireground? - ANSWER Spotting If an apparatus is to be positioned in a dead-end access, it should be backed into position if possible because it will: - ANSWER make an escape faster if it becomes necessary. When positioning an apparatus with the rear uphill on a grade, which tactical impact should be considered? - ANSWER It will be easier to reach the ground with a platform operating off the rear. 1. What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level? A. 3.1417 psi (22 kPa) B. 7.69 psi (53 kPa) C. 14.7 psi (101 kPa) D. 21.3 psi (147 kPa) - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 324 2. What liquid is used to measure vacuum due to its density? A. 2-propanol B. Glycerol C. Water D. Mercury - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 324 3. A fire pumper in good condition should be able to develop a vacuum equal to about: A. 17 inches (391.4 mm Hg). B. 22 inches (507.8 mm Hg). C. 27 inches (623.2 mm Hg). D. 30 inches (692.4 mm Hg). - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 324 4. What term refers to the height that a column of water can be lifted in a quantity considered sufficient to provide reliable fire flow? A. Positive lift B. Atmospheric lift C. Dependable lift D. Acceptable lift - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 325 5. Which term refers to the process of removing air from a fire pump and replacing it with water? A. Intake B. Rotary C. Venturi D. Priming - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 325 6. What is the best way to assess the operational readiness of the priming system? A. Perform a vacuum test B. Perform a pump test C. Perform a sprinkler test D. Perform a hydrant test - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 328 7. When a reliable public or private water system is not available, drafting operations, relay pumping, water shuttles, and nurse tender operations will become the responsibility of the: A. tanker officer. B. pumping officer. C. water supply officer. D. drafting officer. - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 330 8. What does the "C" stand for in the formula Q=L × W × D × C? A. Coefficient B. Calculation C. Constant D. Coefficient calculation - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 331 10. Using the formula Q =W × D × V × C, calculate the amount of water available in a stream that is 10 ft (3.05 m) wide and 2 ft (0.61 m) deep. The water is traveling at 15 ft/min (4.57 m/min). A. 2250 gpm (8520 L/min) B. 2350 gpm (8896 L/min) C. 2450 gpm (9275 L/min) D. 2650 gpm (10,031 L/min) - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 331 9. Using the formula Q L × W × D × C, calculate the amount of water available in a pond that is 100 ft (30.48 m) long, 80 ft (24.38 m) wide, and 4 ft (1.22 m) deep. A. 24,000 gallons (90,850 L) B. 240,000 gallons (908,500 L) C. 2,400,000 gallons (9,085,000 L) D. 240,240 gallons (909,400 L) - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: XX 11. What term refers to the vertical distance from the water level to the center of the fire pumper? A. Suction B. Lift C. Draft D. Suspension - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 333 12. The first step in establishing a drafting operation is to: A. place the pump in gear. B. locate an appropriate water source. C. inspect the gaskets in the hard suction. D. assemble the hard suction hose and strainer. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A) Page: 335 13. Which type of strainer is used for deep water sources in which the driver/operator is confident the strainer will not contact the bottom of the water source? A. Floating strainer B. Pipe strainer C. Barrel strainer D. Low-level strainer - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 335 14. Which type of strainer is used for clean, shallow water sources? A. Floating strainer B. Pipe strainer C. Barrel strainer D. Low-level strainer - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 335 15. Which type of strainer is designed to operate below the surface scum and above the weeds, dirt, and silt in the water source? A. Floating strainer B. Pipe strainer C. Barrel strainer D. Low-level strainer - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 336 16. Which type of strainer requires 24 inches (0.5 m) of water in all directions around the strainer? A. Floating strainer B. Pipe strainer C. Barrel strainer D. Low-level strainer - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 336 17. What is the minimum water depth required to draft utilizing low-level and floating strainers? A. 12 inches (0.3 m) B. 24 inches (0.5 m) C. 36 inches (0.9 m) D. 48 inches (1.2 m) - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 336 19. What term refers to a small-diameter hose that remains in the open position and continues flowing water during the entire drafting operation? A. Flow line B. Attack line C. Dump line D. Hard suction line - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 340 18. If drafting with a two-staged pump, it is recommended that the pump be in the ___________ stage before beginning any drafting operations. A. pressure B. series C. drafting D. volume - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 340 20. When providing water to the operation for the purpose of master streams from a static water source, the transfer valve in a two-stage pump should be in the__________ position. A. pressure B. volume C. straight D. on - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 341 21. What step should a driver/operator take if during a drafting operation there is a drop in intake pressure while pumping? A. Close the intake valve. B. Move the changeover valve to volume mode. C. Check the strainer for debris. D. Increase pump discharge pressure. - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 345 22. What term describes a condition that occurs when the driver/operator attempts to flow water faster than it is being supplied to the pump? A. Relay pumping B. Overpressure C. Relief pumping D. Cavitation - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 345 23. The location where tankers can get their water tanks filled is the: A. water shuttle. B. fill site. C. dump site. D. water site. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 10.2.3, 10.2.3(A), 10.2.3(B) Page: 347 24. ________ create a static water source for the firefighting operation. A. Water shuttles B. Fill sites C. Dump sites D. Water sites - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.3, 10.2.3(A), 10.2.3(B) Page: 347 25. When using the inch (65-mm) outlets on a hydrant at a fill site, first: A. open the hydrant fully. B. open the steamer connection on the hydrant. C. place a control valve on the 2½-inch (65-mm) outlets. D. place a 2½-inch (65-mm) nozzle on one of the outlets. - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 347 26. In a relay pumping operation, what term describes the pumper that is located at a water source? A. Water supply pumper B. Attack pumper C. Source pumper D. Tanker/tender - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 334 27. A 3000-gallon (12,000-L) tanker/tender should carry a portable tank with a capacity of at least: A. 1500 gallons (6000 L). B. 2500 gallons (10,000 L). C. 3000 gallons (12,000 L). D. 9000 gallons (36,000 L). - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 10.2.3, 10.2.3(A), 10.2.3(B) Page: 350 28. A _______________ is used for moving water from one dump tank to another. A. PVC bridge B. dump fill C. water shuffle D. jet siphon - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 10.2.3, 10.2.3(A), 10.2.3(B) Page: 353 29. When drafting from portable tanks, the driver/operator should use a ____________ strainer to allow the maximum volume of water out of the tank without worrying about drawing in debris or silt as might occur in a pond, stream, or lake. A. low-level B. standard barrel C. big water barrel D. floating - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 10.2.3, 10.2.3(A), 10.2.3(B) Page: 354 30. What type of tanker operation does not require the use of portable tanks, but consists of offloading water from a tanker into a pumper? A. Relay pumping tanker B. Portable tanker C. Nurse tender D. Attack tanker - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002 : 10.2.1, 10.2.1(A), 10.2.2, 10.2.2(A) Page: 355 1. The process of transferring the supply of water from the internal apparatus water tank to an external source is known as a(n): A. changeover operation. B. dynamic conversion. C. transfer operation. D. intake conversion. - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 290 2. What should the driver/operator do if the fire apparatus does not go into the "pump" position after completing the correct procedures? A. Manually shift the pump gear. B. Force the transmission into third gear. C. Reset the parking brake. D. Reverse the procedure to take the fire apparatus out of "pump" gear and start again. - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 292 3. Once the pump is engaged, what is the first step a driver/operator must take upon exiting the cab? A. Open the discharge. B. Chock the wheels of the apparatus. C. Connect the supply line. D. Inform the senior fire officer of pump engagement. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 292 4. A primed pump will have _____________ inside the pump. A. no water B. no air C. reserved air D. reserved water - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 293 5. __________ evolutions are standard methods of working with fire hose to accomplish different objectives in a variety of situations. A. Maintenance B. Normal C. Specialized D. Fire hose - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 293 6. What is the term for laying supply lines from the hydrant to the fire scene? A. Reverse lay B. Forward lay C. Upward lay D. Split hose lay - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 295 7. What is the term for laying supply lines from the fire scene to the hydrant to establish a water source? A. Reverse lay B. Forward lay C. Upward lay D. Split hose lay - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 295 8. A 500-ft (150-m) lay of 5-inch (125-mm) hose can supply: A. 700 gpm (2800 L/min). B. 800 gpm (3200 L/min). C. 900 gpm (3600 L/min). D. 1000 gpm (4000 L/min). - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 295 9. What is the correct term for laying supply lines in two different directions to establish a water source? A. Reverse lay B. Forward lay C. Upward lay D. Split hose lay - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 297 10. Which type of standpipe system depends upon the fire department to provide all of the water? A. Dry B. Wet C. Nonpressure D. Pressure - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 300 11. Which type of standpipe system has a built-in water supply? A. Dry B. Wet C. Nonpressure D. Pressure - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 300 12. What determines the pressure requirements for pumping to a standpipe system? A. Square footage of the building B. Number of sprinkler heads activated C. Height at which the water will be used in the building D. Diameter of the standpipe system piping - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 300 13. As a guideline, sprinkler systems should be pumped at a pressure of _____ unless other specific information is available. A. 50 psi (350 kPa) B. 100 psi (700 kPa) C. 150 psi (1050 kPa) D. 200 psi (1400 kPa) - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 302 14. What size and type of connections are found on a fire department connection? A. Two 3-inch (76-mm) male connections B. Two 3-inch (76-mm) female connections C. Two 2½-inch (65-mm) male connections D. Two 2½-inch (65-mm) female connections - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 302 15. During pumping operations, if the driver/operator discovers that the engine temperature is increasing, then he or she should: A. shut down the pumping operation. B. shut down all unnecessary loads on the engine. C. wet the engine down with water. D. sound the evacuation signal. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 305 16. The _____________ allows engine coolant to flow in a tube around copper piping containing cold pump water from the fire pump flowing through it, reducing the temperature of the engine coolant by conduction. A. flow exchanger B. heat dissipater C. auxiliary cooler D. coolant flow valve - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 305 17. When disengaging the fire pump, the driver/operator should first: A. reduce the throttle to idle speed. B. close the discharge valves. C. step in the apparatus's cab. D. move the pump's shift control switch into the "road" position. - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 308 18. A high idle switch sets a fire apparatus engine to idle at _____________ rpm. A. 500-700 B. 900-1100 C. D. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 310 19. Which of the following components of an automatic load management system activates electrical loads in a specific order to prevent overloading the electrical system? A. Load shedding B. Load alternator C. Load sequencer D. Load monitor - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 310 20. Which of the following components of an automatic load management system prevents additional electric loads from exceeding the system's capabilities? A. Load shedding B. Load alternator C. Load sequencer D. Load monitor - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 310 21. Which of the following components of an automatic load management system deactivates unnecessary electrical loads in order of necessity to prevent damage to the system? A. Load shedding B. Load alternator C. Load sequencer D. Load monitor - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 310 22. Which of the following appliances converts 12-volt direct current from a vehicle's electrical system to 110-volt alternating current power? A. Alternator B. Inverter C. Sequencer D. Regulator - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 310 23. Which of the following generators can produce 25 kilowatts or more of power? A. Portable generator B. Inverter generator C. Transmission-driven generator D. Apparatus-mounted generator - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 311 24. Which of the following lighting systems can be operated above most obstacles to provide the desired on-scene lighting? A. Lanterns B. Portable lights C. Apparatus-mounted lights D. Tower lights - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 314 25. Which of the following devices attaches to an electrical cord to allow multiple power-operated tools to be supplied by that single electrical cord? A. Junction box B. Power inverter C. Load sharer D. Power divider - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 315 26. What is the most common fluid used in hydraulic rescue tools? A. Mineral-based hydraulic oil B. Automatic transmission fluid C. Ethylene glycol D. Phosphate ester - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 316 27. Which of the following types of hydraulic tools has at least one moveable arm that opens to move material? A. Extension rams B. Spreaders C. Cutters D. Combination tools - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 317 28. Which of the following types of hydraulic tools has at least one moveable blade used to cut, shear, or sever material? A. Extension rams B. Spreaders C. Cutters D. Combination tools - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 317 29. Which of the following types of hydraulic tools is capable of at least spreading and cutting material? A. Extension rams B. Spreaders C. Cutters D. Combination tools - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 317 30. Which of the following types of hydraulic tools generates extending and retracting forces to move material? A. Extension rams B. Spreaders C. Cutters D. Combination tools - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.7, 4.3.7(A), 5.2.4(1), 5.2.4(2), 5.2.4(3), 5.2.4(4), 5.2.4(A) Page: 317 1. What is the term that best defines the process of sending out emergency response resources promptly to an incident location for a specific purpose? A. Communications B. Dispatch C. MDT D. Paging - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: N/A Page: 255 2. Unsecured equipment in the crew compartment can prove dangerous if the apparatus must stop or turn quickly, because: A. they can distract the driver. B. hazardous materials are more susceptible to spilling. C. it can easily get lost or roll out an open window. D. a flying tool, map book, or PPE can seriously injure a fire fighter. - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: N/A Page: 258 3. Be careful when mounting and dismounting apparatus, because: A. you may be in the driver/operator's blind spot. B. the steps on fire apparatus are often high and can be slippery. C. you may not be the only one mounting/dismounting. D. the vehicle may still be moving. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: N/A Page: 258 4. No member of a fire department should be permitted to drive a fire apparatus or emergency vehicle: A. unless he or she is a chief officer. B. until he or she has completed a training course approved by the fire department. C. until he or she has obtained a commercial driver's license. D. until he or she has performed an inspection on the vehicle. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 258 5. Which level of response means the fire apparatus is operating with emergency lights but without any audible warning devices such as sirens? A. Code 4 response B. Code 3 response C. Code 2 response D. Code 1 response - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 261 6. Which level of response means the fire apparatus is operating without emergency lights or audible warning devices such as sirens and air horns? A. Code 4 response B. Code 3 response C. Code 2 response D. Code 1 response - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 261 7. During an emergency response on a roadway with multiple lanes, where should the driver/operator operate the apparatus? A. Far left lane B. Far right lane C. Straddling two middle lanes D. Whichever lane doesn't contain vehicles - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 261 8. The distance that it takes for a driver/operator to recognize a hazard, process the need to stop the apparatus, apply the brakes, and then come to a complete stop is known as the _____________ distance. A. braking B. reaction C. response D. total stopping - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 262 9. The distance that a fire apparatus travels from the time that the brakes are activated until the apparatus makes a complete stop is known as the _________________ distance. A. braking B. reaction C. response D. total stopping - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 262 10. What best defines liquid surge? A. When the fire apparatus strikes water on the roadway B. When the fire apparatus is "empty" or not carrying any tank water C. The movement of water inside the container D. The movement of water through hose lines - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 262 11. Brake ______ occurs when the brake drums become hot and expand away from the brake shoes, causing the brakes to heat up until they become less effective. A. fade B. failure C. malfunction D. weakness - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 263 12. Which of the following statements best relates to the understanding of centrifugal force? A. Objects are pulled inward when rotating around a center. B. Objects remain in a circular direction. C. Objects are pulled both inward and outward when rotating around a center. D. Objects are pulled outward when rotating around a center. - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 264 13. The maximum speed that a fire apparatus can safely travel around a curve is known as the _______ speed. A. critical B. decisive C. maximum D. overage - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 264 14. During an emergency response, which traffic situation presents the greatest potential danger to the fire apparatus? A. Intersections B. Bridges C. Tunnels D. Straight sections of roadway - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 265 15. A(n) __________________ is a shutter valve that activates just behind the turbo charger to create braking horsepower. A. compression brake B. transmission retarder C. exhaust brake D. electromagnetic retarder - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 265 16. Whenever the driver/operator is faced with approaching an unguarded railroad crossing, he or she should: A. operate all audible warning devices. B. slow down to ensure the train can see the fire apparatus. C. come to a complete stop. D. turn off all headlights, if at night, and look for the train's spotlights. - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 266 17. Upon arriving on the scene of a possible structure fire, the driver/operator should attempt to view at least _______ side(s) of the structure. A. one B. two C. three D. four - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 268 18. When arriving on the scene of a working fire, the driver/operator should: A. park as close to the fire as possible. B. always position the apparatus on side "A" of the structure. C. place the apparatus in a position for maximum benefit. D. lay a reverse lay for water supply. - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 269 19. The placement of fire apparatus on the fireground should take into account all of the following considerations EXCEPT: A. fire department SOPs. B. orders from the incident commander. C. company officer decisions. D. traffic congestion. - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 269 20. While on a fire scene, fire apparatus are classified into which two categories? A. Working and parked B. Working and staged C. Operational and parked D. Operational and staged - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Pages: 269-271 21. Which term best describes the standard procedure for managing uncommitted resources at the scene of an incident? A. Parking B. Resource holding area C. Division D. Staging - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 270 22. Level I staging is used when _______ or more units are dispatched to an emergency incident. A. two B. three C. four D. five - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Pages: 270-271 23. What is the title of the person responsible for maintaining the operations of the staging area? A. Logistics officer B. Safety officer C. Deputy operations section chief D. Staging area manager - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 271 24. What fire apparatus are considered the "bread-and-butter" apparatus of the fire service? A. Engine and ladder companies B. EMS and truck companies C. Tender and tanker companies D. Rescue and engine companies - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 272 25. What is the first priority for every fire apparatus responding to an emergency scene? A. Exposures B. Rescue potential C. Confinement of fire D. Extinguishment of fire - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 272 26. A collapse zone is a distance of ______________ times the height of the building in which fire fighters and fire apparatus must not be located in case of a building collapse. A. 1 B. 1½ C. 2 D. 3 - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 230 27. NFPA 1901 requires that wheel chocks be able to hold a fire apparatus on a _____ percent grade with the transmission in neutral and the parking brake released. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 273 28. Most aerial devices are designed to be operated in winds up to: A. 40 mi/h (64 km/h). B. 50 mi/h (80 km/h. C. 60 mi/h (97 km/h). D. 70 mi/h (113 km/h). - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 274 29. All aerial devices should remain a minimum of ____________ from all overhead wires. A. 5 ft (1.5 m) B. 7 ft (2 m) C. 10 ft (3 m) D. 15 ft (4.5 m) - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 274 30. What term refers to a document developed by gathering general and detailed data used by responding personnel to determine the resources and actions necessary to mitigate anticipated emergencies at a specific facility or location? A. Postincident survey B. Emergency scene size-up C. Preincident plan D. Building plan - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 275 31. When arriving on the scene of an incident that requires the driver/operator to position the fire apparatus on or near an intersection or highway, the driver/operator should: A. not allow personnel to exit the cab until the driver is satisfied with the position of the fire apparatus. B. always back the unit off the roadway. C. allow personnel to work on the side of the roadway without a traffic safety vest. D. keep headlights on bright to ensure other drivers see the apparatus. - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 276 32. The safety vest that offers the highest level of visibility in accordance with the American National Standards Institute is a Class ______ safety vest. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 279 33. According to the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices for Streets and Highways, which classification of traffic incidents is expected to result in closing of the highway for more than 2 hours? A. Advanced traffic incidents B. Minor traffic incidents C. Intermediate traffic incidents D. Major traffic incidents - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 278 34. When approaching a motor vehicle accident, the driver/operator should: A. access the scene however possible. B. always approach the scene in the far left lane of travel. C. weave in and out of traffic if necessary. D. require vehicles blocking the roadway to move. - ANSWER answer: B NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 280 35. Twenty-five percent of all reported fires in the United States involve: A. structures. B. single-family dwelling. C. vehicles. D. trash/garbage. - ANSWER answer: C NFPA 1002: 4.3.1, 4.3.1(A), 4.3.6, 4.3.6(A) Page: 276 36. Which of the following control zones is the area for entry teams and rescue teams only and immediately surrounds the dangers of the site? A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Evacuation zone - ANSWER answer: A NFPA 1002: N/A Page: 285 37. What is the minimum distance an apparatus should be positioned from a trench collapse? A. 50 ft (15 m) B. 75 ft (23 m) C. 100 ft (30 m) D. 150 ft (45 m) - ANSWER answer: D NFPA 1002: N/A Page: 285 3- It is the responsibility of _________ to conduct ongoing training to ensure the personnel's proficiency with regard to the safe and proper use of the fire apparatus and its equipment. - ANSWER THE PURCHASING JURISDICTION 3- Which piece of equipment is designed to hold the pumper, when loaded to its maximum in-service weight, on a 10 percent grade with the transmission in neutral and the parking brake released? - ANSWER WHEEL CHOCKS 3- A(n) _________________ is an apparatus designed to be more maneuverable than the pumper, but would require the same training as a pumper. - ANSWER INITIAL ATTACK FIRE APPARATUS 3- If a mobile water supply apparatus is equipped with a fire pump, then at least _____ of 2-1/2" or larger supply hose must be available. - ANSWER 200 FT 3- In the late 19th century, Scott-Uda designed a height extension ladder using eight extensions countered by weights and balances. These aerials were short lived because: - ANSWER MANY PEOPLE DIED DUE TO THEIR COLLAPSE 3- The five functions associated with a quint fire apparatus are: - ANSWER PUMP, WATER TANK, FIRE HOSE STORAGE, AERIAL, AND GROUND LADDERS 3- The job of a ___________ is to deliver foam immediately at the scene without requiring fire fighters to attach special containers or change nozzles. - ANSWER MOBILE FOAM FIRE APPARATUS 3- With the purchase of a new apparatus, it is important that training include: - ANSWER ALL ARE CORRECT (maintenance, equipment training, apparatus operation) 3- Before a new apparatus is put into service, what must be completed? - ANSWER TRAINING ON THE APPARATUS 4- Approximately what percentage of the earth's surface is covered by water? - ANSWER 70-75% 4- The amount of heat energy required to increase the temperature of a substance is known as it specific heat index. Water's specific heat index is: - ANSWER 1 4- When water is moving, it has a combination of potential energy and ________ energy. - ANSWER KINETIC 4- Principle 4 of fluid pressure that states, "The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the _____ of the vessel. - ANSWER DEPTH 4- One advantage of a wet-barrel hydrant is: - ANSWER YOU CAN ADD HOSELINES WITHOUT SHUTTING OFF THE HYDRANT 4- A fire hydrant that has a flow of 500-999 gpm at 20 psi would be considered what class of hydrant? - ANSWER CLASS B 4- The first part of a hydrant inspection is to: - ANSWER CHECK THE EXTERIOR OF THE HYDRANT FOR SIGNS OF DAMAGE 4- Flow testing should be done: - ANSWER AT PEAK WATER FLOW TIMES 4- Static water supplies are most commonly used in: - ANSWER RURAL AREAS 4- An alternative means of obtaining water in areas that are inaccessible to fire apparatus would be: - ANSWER A PORTABLE PUMP 5- All fire pumps are rated from a: - ANSWER DRAFT 5- According to NFPA standards, at 100 psi net pump pressure, a fire pump must deliver at least: - ANSWER 3000 GPM 5- What type of pump is typically used as the priming pump for a centrifugal pump? - ANSWER ROTARY PUMP 5- The centrifugal pump must be primed because: - ANSWER IT CANNOT MOVE AIR 5- When more than 50 percent of the two-stage pump centrifugal pump's rated capacity is needed on the fireground, the pump should be operated in: - ANSWER PARALLEL/VOLUME MODE 5- In most pumping operations, you will supply one or two handlines with a total flow of 300-400 gpm of water. A 1000-gal two-stage pump can easily supply this amount while operating in: - ANSWER SERIES/PRESSURE MODE 5- Each intake valve that has a connection larger than 3 inches must be equipped with an: - ANSWER AUTOMATIC INTAKE PRESSURE RELIEF DEVICE 5- One instrument NOT installed on the pump operator's panel is the: - ANSWER FLOW METER 5- Engines operate at different oil pressures, so the operator must be familiar with the normal _____ range for the oil pressure in each apparatus they operate. - ANSWER OPERATING 5- A front mount pump would most likely be getting is power from the: - ANSWER CRANKSHAFT 6- Medium-diameter hose has a diameter of __________, and is used as either supply line or attach line. - ANSWER 2-1/2" or 3 INCHES 6- A single 5-inch supply line can deliver flows exceeding: - ANSWER 1500 GPM 6- Which of the following would NOT be considered a fire hose appliance? - ANSWER SMOOTH-BORE NOZZLE 6- Closing a valve too quickly will cause: - ANSWER WATER HAMMER 6- Most smooth-bore nozzles are designed to operate at: - ANSWER 50 PSI 6- Which nozzle would operate with less air movement and thus less disturbance of the thermal layering? - ANSWER SOLID-STREAM 6- One benefit of using lower nozzle pressure is: - ANSWER THE NOZZLE IS EASIER TO CONTROL 6- A hose jacket can be used to: - ANSWER TEMPORARILY STOP A LEAKING HOSE 6- If a soft sleeve hose uses Storz connections, before charging the line you should always make sure: - ANSWER THE COUPLING IS LOCKED 6- Why are hose clamps often applied to supply lines before they are charged? - ANSWER DOING SO ALLOWS THE LINE TO BE CHARGED BEFORE IT IS CONNECTED TO THE ATTACK PUMPER 7- Smooth-bore nozzles on prepiped elevated master streams are commonly rated at a nozzle pressure of: - ANSWER 80 psi 7- The formula NR=1.57 x d2 x np is used to calculate the nozzle reaction for which kind of nozzle? - ANSWER SMOOTH-BORE NOZZLES 7- Calculate the flow rate for a 1-1/4" tip used on a 2-1/2"handline (the constant is 29.7 and the nozzle pressure is 50) - ANSWER 328 gpm 7- In the formula to calculate friction loss, the L is: - ANSWER THE LENGTH OF THE HOSELINE DIVIDED BY 100 7- For all master stream appliances, you can estimate that the friction loss will be: - ANSWER 25 psi 7- Calculate the elevation pressure change if you're supplying water to a high-rise building (with 10 ft ceilings) with a fire on the fifth floor. - ANSWER 20 psi 7- In the percentage method, you calculate the total flow through one line. The FL in two hoselines will be ___ percent of the total flow through one hoseline, and the FL in three hoselines will be approximately ____ percent of the total flow through one hoseline. - ANSWER 25:10 7- Since you can generate just one pressure into a standpipe, what would you send if you used two attack lines, one that needed 165 psi and one that needed 135 psi? - ANSWER 165 psi 7- Net pump discharge pressure from a static source is referred to as: - ANSWER NPDP draft 7- The subtract 10 method can be used to determine friction loss in what size hose only? - ANSWER 2-1/2 inches 8- The first priority when performing an inspection is: - ANSWER Personal safety 8- The inspection should be performed: - ANSWER Exactly the same way every time 8- What piece of US currency can be an effective tool when inspecting an apparatus? - ANSWER Quarter 8- When checking oil levels, how long should you wait after shutting off the engine, before doing a dip stick test? - ANSWER 15 minutes 8- New apparatus manufactured after 2010 may have an additional tank of diesel exhaust fluid used to: - ANSWER Meet the new emission requirements 8- Exterior functional control switches are located: - ANSWER Inside the cab 8- Even if the water tank has a level gauge, a visual inspection of the water supply tank should be conducted, because: - ANSWER You can verify the accuracy of the gauge 8- When inspecting the pump: - ANSWER you inspect against the flow, discharge to intake 8- Be sure not to operate the pump for more than a few minutes without circulating water back to the tank or the other discharge line because: - ANSWER Without the cooling provided by the circulating water, you can damage the pump 8- NFPA 1911, Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing and Retirement of In-Service Automotive Fire Apparatus, requires that aerial devices be tested: - ANSWER Annually 9- The first step in your 360-degree inspection before driving should be to: - ANSWER Open the fire apparatus bay door completely 9- The ignition switch: - ANSWER Delivers operational power to the chassis 9- The only time everyone on the apparatus does not have to be seated and belted is: - ANSWER Never; whenever the apparatus moves, everyone should be securely seated 9- When setting up a serpentine maneuver exercise, the cones should be placed: - ANSWER At the same distance as the wheelbase of the apparatus being driven 9- When performing a confined-space turnaround exercise, the area in which to complete the exercise is: - ANSWER 50ft x 100ft 9- The concept of "due regard" requires the driver/operator to: - ANSWER Drive safely, and not jeopardize the safety of other motorists or pedestrians 9- The diminishing clearance exercise tests the driver/operator's ability to maneuver the fire apparatus around ________ as if it were an actual emergency. - ANSWER All (store front signs, other apparatus, parked cars) 9- The preferred location for a rear spotter to stand is: - ANSWER Behind and to the left of the fire apparatus 9- One downside to having drive-through bays in stations is: - ANSWER The driver/operator's reversing skills can become rusty 9- The last step for shutting down and securing a fire apparatus is: - ANSWER Replacing, cleaning and repairing any used equipment Chapter 10 - ANSWER 10- National Fire Protection Association 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety, Health, and Wellness Program and NFPA 1001, Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications, requires all fire fighters to: - ANSWER to be in their seats, with seat belts secured, whenever the vehicle is in motion 10 -When riding the fire apparatus, you should: - ANSWER Don PPE prior to mounting 10- Many fire departments allow fire apparatus to exceed the posted speed limit by: - ANSWER 10 mph 10- Total stopping distance is defined as the reaction distance and: - ANSWER Braking distance 10- To avoid the potential for roll-over owing to the apparatus's load, you must slow down before making the turn. How much braking should be done in a straight line before entering a corner? - ANSWER 90 percent 10- If the apparatus is exceeding the critical speed into a turn: - ANSWER It is too late to try to correct the problem 10- Once the apparatus is in the vicinity of the emergency, who should be looking to identify the location? - ANSWER Everyone on the apparatus 10- The placement of all fire apparatus on the fireground should take into account all of the following considerations EXCEPT: - ANSWER A direct order from an officer of the law 10- All aerial devices are designed to be operated in winds up to: - ANSWER 35-50mph 10- According to the MUTCD, the area where the normal flow of traffic resumes, is known as the: - ANSWER Termination area Chapter 11 - ANSWER 11- When you have completed the correct procedures for putting the apparatus in pump mode, but it doesn't engage, what is the next step? - ANSWER Completely reverse the procedure 11- The biggest reason to decide to prime or not prime the pump is: - ANSWER Whether or not the pump is kept dry or wet 11- The person who gives the order to charge the supply line is the: - ANSWER Driver/operator 11- A ____________ is performed by two engine companies in situations where hose must be laid in two different directions to establish a water supply. - ANSWER Split lay 11- If the exterior FDC is damaged such that a connection to it is impossible, the accepted practice is to: - ANSWER Connect to the standpipe discharge on the first floor 11- During a changeover, the goal is to ensure the fluctuation in pressure does not exceed: - ANSWER 10 psi 11- A transmission-driven generator is powered by ____ and is driven by ________: - ANSWER The vehicles motor, a power take-off system 11- A _________ hose lay involves laying the hose from the fire to the hydrant, in the opposite direction of the water flow. - ANSWER Reverse 11- What converts the fluid pressure in a hydraulic rescue tool system into a mechanical force? - ANSWER Actuator 11- During extension, an extension ram is a very powerful tool generating up to 10,000 psi. During retraction, an extension ram can produce: - ANSWER 50% less power Chapter 12 - ANSWER 12- At sea level the atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi. At 2000 feet above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is: - ANSWER 13.7 psi 12- If the anti-siphon hole is clogged, then: - ANSWER Oil will continue to flow into the priming pump after it is needed 12- A fire pump that retains any vacuum for how long should prime and draft water easily in most situations? - ANSWER 5 minutes 12- The amount of water available in a lake 200 ft long, 100 ft wide, and 10 ft deep would be: - ANSWER 1,500,000 gallons 12- The amount of water available in a stream 10 ft wide, 4 ft deep, and flowing at 25 ft a minute, would be: - ANSWER 7500 gallons 12- In winter conditions, if you need to cut a hole in ice for the suction hose, then you'll also need to: - ANSWER Cut an additional hole for venting 12- Which of the following would be considered a lower-flow strainer? - ANSWER the low-level strainer 12- Another problem you may encounter during drafting operations is __________, which occurs when you attempt to flow water faster than it is being supplied to the pump. - ANSWER Cavitation 12- Most portable pumps will flow water at a maximum rate of: - ANSWER 250 gpm 12- A tanker should never be driven: - ANSWER When only partially filled Chapter 13 - ANSWER 13- Once a relay is established, generally the only crew member who needs to remain with the fire apparatus is the: - ANSWER Driver/operator 13- The operation of the __________ will dictate how much water will be needed, based on how many gpm the fire attack requires. - ANSWER Attack pumper 13- A minimum of ________ crew members should be assigned to each fire pumper if the pumper will be exposed to moving traffic and other hazards around the fire apparatus - ANSWER Two 13- The ______________ pumper is generally the first pumping apparatus to arrive on the scene of a fire. - ANSWER Attack 13- What is the minimum residual pressure required to prevent cavitation? - ANSWER 20 psi 13- A relay pumper is considered ready when: - ANSWER Both the supply hose to the pumper and the discharge hose to the next pumper are connected 13- An attack pumper may have only _________ minutes of water in its tank to supply the hoselines and crews operating at the fire. - ANSWER 2.5 to 5 minutes 13- When shutting down the relay pumping operation, the __________ pumper acts first. - ANSWER Attack 13- Incident safety is improved when crew members have: - ANSWER All choices are correct (training, knowledge, practice) 13- True or False: when using a manifold to supply two attack pumpers, the appliance does not create any additional friction loss - ANSWER False Chapter 14 - ANSWER 14- The foam tetrahedron depicts the elements needed to produce finished foam. Which of the following is NOT part of the foam tetrahedron? - ANSWER Oxygen 14- Wetting agents can extinguish fires involving Class A materials as much as ______ times faster than water.. - ANSWER 20 14- _____________ consists of a mixture of synthetic foaming agents and fluorochemical surfactants. - ANSWER Aqueous film-forming foam 14- Which of the following is NOT a problem that may arise with batch mixing? - ANSWER A higher inlet pressure at the eductor will cause the foam solution to have a lower percentage of concentrate, which could affect the company's ability to handle the situation in which the foam is being applied. 14- The maximum inlet pressure to the water pump of an around-the-pump proportioning system cannot be more than: - ANSWER 10 psi 14- Which system uses a diaphragm-type pressure control valve to sense and balance the pressures in the foam concentrate and water lines to the proportioner? - ANSWER Balanced-pressure system 14- Which nozzle is the nozzle of choice when using a CAFS? - ANSWER Smooth bore nozzle 14- Which foam application method should be sued only on a pool of flammable product that is located on open ground? - ANSWER Roll-on method 14- The __________ of foam application has two caveats: this method might not be effective when wind conditions are unfavorable, and the coverage of the foam needs to be monitored. - ANSWER Raindown method 14- True or False: The protein foam first used on Navy ships in the 1940s is still used in the fire service today. - ANSWER True Chapter 19 - ANSWER 19- When performing a braking test, a fire apparatus that weighs more than 10,000 lbs should stop within: - ANSWER 35 ft 19- When testing a battery charger or conditioner with the apparatus turned off and electrical loads that exceed the rated output of the charger/conditioner turned on, the output of the battery charger/conditioner should be at least _________ percent of the rated output of the battery charger/conditioner. - ANSWER 80 19- Performance testing of foam proportioning systems can be done using any of the following methods EXCEPT: - ANSWER Determine the foam percentage with GFCI testing 19- Discharge pressure gauges can be checked quickly against test gauges to determine their accuracy. Individual discharge lines with gauges should be ________ and the discharge valve ________. - ANSWER Capped; opened slightly 19- During the tank-to-pump test, if you suspect that the pump is beginning to run away, _______ the engine throttle quickly and ________ the appropriate discharge. - ANSWER Reduce; close 19- For pumps that operate at less than 1500 gpm, the priming device should be able to create the necessary vacuum in ___ seconds to lift water 10 ft through 20 ft of suction hose of the appropriate size. The priming device on pumps that operate at 1500 gpm or more should be able to accomplish this task in ____ seconds. - ANSWER 30;45 19- Engine and pump performance may be reduced at higher elevations. Most fire apparatus are rated for operations at elevations up to: - ANSWER 2000 ft 19- The pressure control device should be tested at: - ANSWER 150, 90, and 250 psi intervals 19- If the test conditions are equivalent to those at the time of delivery of the fire apparatus and the speed of the engine increases by more than ____ percent of the original engine speed, the reason for this decrease in performance should be determined and the deficiency corrected. - ANSWER 10 19- True or False: because of the significant pressure being applied when conducting pump testing, only hand-held nozzles should be used during performance tests. - ANSWER False Chapter 20 - ANSWER 20- How can the communications center of a fire department be characterized? - ANSWER As the hub of the department 20- Which characterization best describes the communication center of a fire department? - ANSWER A physical location 20- _________ have been professionally trained to work in a public safety communications environment. - ANSWER telecommunicators 20- Almost everything that happens in a communications center is recorded, either by a voice recording system or by an___________. - ANSWER Activity logging system 20- What is one type of data that an activity logging system at a communications center would capture? - ANSWER Time of radio transmissions 20- What is the generally accepted time lapse between a call reaching the communications center and the units actually being dispatched? - ANSWER 90 seconds 20- What is the term for the process of actually alerting the selected units to respond and transmitting the information to them? - ANSWER Dispatch 20- Some communities have implemented a system similar to 911, but for non-emergency calls. What number does the public dial in these systems? - ANSWER 311 20- There are ______ major steps in processing an emergency incident. - ANSWER 5 20- Most fire departments use _________ for radio communications - ANSWER Plain English TEST REVIEW - McAfee - ANSWER TR- Which system on the apparatus can be checked by viewing the voltmeter? - ANSWER Electrical system TR- What psi should the low air warning device come on? - ANSWER 60 TR- What is the tire tread depth? 4/34/322 - ANSWER 4/32 TR- When conducting a power system test, how long run system under load? - ANSWER 10 min TR- According to nfpa 1500, who is responsible for making sure everyone has seatbelt on? - ANSWER Driver TR- In what situation do most fire fighter fatalities result when driving? - ANSWER Returning from call TR- The distance the apparatus travels from application of brake to stop is called? - ANSWER Braking distance TR- What percentage of braking should be done in a straight line? - ANSWER 90 TR- When does centrifugal force affect apparatus? - ANSWER Turn TR- When using lights and sirens, you are _______________ the right of way. - ANSWER REQUESTING TR- When driving apparatus and start to skid due to ice, what do you do? - ANSWER Let off the brakes and steer in direction you want to go direction you want to go TR- To clssify a pumper according to NFPA 1901, what is the minimum pump capacity? - ANSWER 750 gpm Minimum 300 gallon tank TR- 3rd party test: - ANSWER acceptance TR- Fire pumps are required to annually perform tests with pump rated capacity of - ANSWER 250 gpm and 150 psi TR- Which of the following is the most common used foam system: - ANSWER electric TR- Fire dept hydraulic calculations are used to determine the required: - ANSWER pump discharge pressure TR- Which of the following statements is correct regarding to how to extinguish a fire? - ANSWER Gpm overcome the BTU's TR- Which of the following is the basic pump discharge pressure for pumpers: - ANSWER PDP = NP + FL TR- Most combination nozzles require ______ psi at the nozzle. - ANSWER 100 TR- Smooth bore nozzles are designed to be _______ psi at the tip - ANSWER 50 TR- What type of force do FF experience when opening and shutting bale? - ANSWER Nozzle reaction TR- What would the approx. gpm of a 1-1/4 smooth bore nozzle be with nozzle pressure of 50 psi? - ANSWER 328gpm TR- FL: what is the FL of 200' of 2-1/2 hose flowing at 300 gpm? - ANSWER Coefficient of 2. 36 TR- When considering elevation, ______ psi loss per floor rule of thumb. - ANSWER 5 TR- What is the PDP for 200' of 2-1/2 flowing at 250 gpm with elevation change of ???? - ANSWER 145PSI TR- What source of water allows quick attack operation? - ANSWER Internal water tank TR- What is the greatest limitation of internal water tank? - ANSWER Capacity TR- Centrifugal pumps only pump fluids. - ANSWER Not Air TR- What pressure remains in the system after it is being used? - ANSWER Residual TR- What type of fire hydrant do you expect in a warm climate? - ANSWER Wet TR- Underground water main in different sizes. What is the biggest? - ANSWER Primary feeder TR- Smallest underground pipe is? - ANSWER Distributor TR- What color is the highest flow rate for hydrants. - ANSWER Light blue TR- A hydrant flowing between is? - ANSWER Green TR- What would be considered a static water source? - ANSWER Pond TR- What is Atm - ANSWER 14.7 TR- What is max height a pump can draft? 15 ft - ANSWER 15 ft TR- Process of removing air from pupm? - ANSWER Prime TR- Most priming pumps are ? - ANSWER rotary TR- Do not operate primer longer than? - ANSWER 45 seconds TR- In a relay pump operation, which pump is most important? - ANSWER Source TR- What type of foam is rarely used in fire service today? - ANSWER Chemical TR- What do you use to determine percentage of foam rate at a fire incident? - ANSWER Material you are trying to extinguish TR- Protein foam is what class of foam? - ANSWER B TR- Which of the following foam is an excellent heat resistant, fuel, and vapor resistant type of foam? - ANSWER Fluoro-protein foam TR- Which of the following is the most used in a municipal airport? - ANSWER AFFF TR- When using inline inductor, nozzle can't be farther than? - ANSWER 150 feet away TR- In a general rule stand pipe operation, your PDP should not exceed? - ANSWER 200 psi TR- When calculating the amount of fl in an unknow standpipe riser, the pump operator should add how much to the calculation? - ANSWER 25 psi TR- Which end of the hose is connected to the standpipe? - ANSWER male TR- When attaching to an FDC connection, consider which type of supply line? - ANSWER 2-1/2" TR- FDC is which type of appliance? - ANSWER Siamese TR- When can you ride on the side or rear of apparatus? - ANSWER Never TR- How often minimum should pumper be inspected? - ANSWER Weekly Hand Pump - ANSWER In 1720 what was the piece of equipment to replace the bucket brigade? NFPA 1500 - ANSWER Which NFPA standard required new fire apparatus to be designed so that all members riding on the fire apparatus would be provided a seated area inside an enclosed cab? Chemical Wagon - ANSWER What was the first gasoline powered fire apparatus to discharge water by using a large soda acid extinguisher? Triple-combustion pumper - ANSWER The real breakthrough for today's modern fire apparatus came with the introduction of the __________________ which carried a booster tank, had a pump capacity of 250 gallons per minute or greater, and carried 21/2 inch and 11/2 inch hoses used for water supply and firefighting. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) - ANSWER Which national organization writes codes and standards for fire protection? Fire hook - ANSWER In the early years of U.S. firefighting history, a was used to pull, down a burning building and prevent the fire from spreading to nearby structures. Coal - ANSWER The first mechanized fire pumps were generally fueled by: Wood - ANSWER In the early 1900's what material did the city of Philadelphia use to develop a municipal water supply system? fires - ANSWER In the early years of U.S. history, many cities employed watchmen to walk the streets at night looking for: antilock braking system (ABS) - ANSWER Auxiliary braking systems incorporated into apparatus design to supplement the service brakes include all of the following EXCEPT: 1500 - ANSWER Growing concerns for firefighter safety during the progression of fire apparatus resulted in the adoption of standard NFPA: bucket brigade - ANSWER What was the system used by colonial-era firefighters in which leather buckets were passed from person to person to assist in extinguishing a fire? responding or returning from the fireground - ANSWER The second leading cause of firefighter fatalities is injuries sustained while: Driver/ Operator Skill and experience - ANSWER Which of the following is/are the most important aspect of fire apparatus crash prevention? Engineer - ANSWER What term was used to identify the fire fighter charged with operating the steam engine? antilock braking system - ANSWER What type of system uses sensors on each wheel to control brake application in the event of a sudden or emergency stop? Consensus - ANSWER NFPA standards are generally based on _________________. Tillerman - ANSWER What term identified the person who sat on the rear of a vehicle to help maneuver a long ladder cart through the streets? horses - ANSWER With the advent of steam-powered pumps (called steamers) in the mid-1800s, _________________ replaced fire fighters in moving equipment to the fireground. Chemical Wagon - ANSWER A small truck constructed with a large soda acid extinguisher and 50 ft or more of small hose (booster line size). Booster Pump - ANSWER A water pump mounted on the fire apparatus in addition to a fire pump and used for firefighting either in conjunction with or independent of the fire pump. Hand pump - ANSWER A piston-driven, positive-displacement pump that is pushed up and down by fire fighters manning poles at the side of the pump. Fire pump - ANSWER A water pump with a rated capacity of 250 GPM or greater at 150 psi. Triple-combination pumper - ANSWER A truck that carries water in a tank generally used for the booster line and commonly called the booster tank. NFPA 1901 - ANSWER Which NFPA standard requires fire apparatus manufacturers to install seat belt warning devices that verify a fire fighter is seated and belted? 1001 - ANSWER Training and performance qualifications for firefighters are specified in which NFPA standard? Fire plugs - ANSWER What were the early U.S. fire hydrants first called? Engine brake - ANSWER Which type of auxiliary braking system slows a vehicle by opening valves in the cylinders of diesel engines to divert compression from the cylinders to create drag? Electronic stability control - ANSWER Which system utilizes steering wheel positioning sensors, lateral positioning senors, and accelerometers in conjunction with the anti-lock braking system to determine when the vehicle is approaching a rollover threshold then depowers the engine and applies the appropriate amount of braking? Automatic Traction Control - ANSWER What type of system detects situations in which the vehicle may enter into a skid and applies precise amounts of braking to help the vehicle maintain traction in slippery road conditions? Philadelphia - ANSWER In the early 1800s, the city of ____________________ developed a municipal water supply using wooden water mains that could be tapped for firefighting. Selecting the best team to bring aboard - ANSWER Which of the following is NOT a response action of the apparatus driver/ operator? immediately communicate the problem to an officer - ANSWER When the driver operator experiences a problem with the apparatus that can't be be managed in the field, the driver/ operator must: Safely, efficiently - ANSWER Training drivers to operate their apparatus ________________ and _______________ is critical to the success of any fire department. Operating Manuals - ANSWER What is the best source for retrieving the answers to specific operational questions? driver/ operator - ANSWER According to NFPA 1002, Fire Apparatus Driver/ Operator Professional Qualifications, the _________________________ is responsible for getting the fire apparatus to the scene safely, setting up, and running the pump or operating the aerial ladder once the vehicle arrives on the scene. 1002 - ANSWER NFPA ____________ requires that driver/operators meet the requirements of NFPA 1001, Standard for firefighter professional qualifications, for firefighter I, if they will be responsible for operating a fire pump or aerial device on the fire apparatus. Routine - ANSWER ___________________ inspections include all on-board systems and all carried equipment. Synergy - ANSWER The more a crew knows about the driver/operator's roles and responsibilities, the stronger the crew's __________________ becomes. Driver/ Operator's - ANSWER According to Chapter 4 of National Fire Protection (NFPA) 1002, standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/ Operator Professional Qualifications, it is the _________________________ responsibility to ensure that passenger restraints are used. Twice A year - ANSWER According to NFPA 1451, each fire department should provide driver training for all members no less than: twice a year - ANSWER NFPA 1451 requires all members to receive drivers training at least: indentifying nearby hydrant locations or water sources, and selecting the best position for the apparatus at the incident scene. - ANSWER Response actions for the apparatus driver/ operator include: Assigned riding positions - ANSWER ___________________ are a proactive means that critical functions are assigned to team members prior to arrival. Research delegations - ANSWER Which of the following is NOT one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety initiatives? Officer in Charge - ANSWER Most fire departments designate the front passenger seat to the: tactical benchmarks - ANSWER Objectives that are required to be completed during the operational phase of an incident are known as: - ANSWER ___________________ is a key consideration for the dr