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AACN / CCRN / PCCN Critical Care Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers Grade A Certified 2025/26

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Commonly withheld therapy - correct answervasopressors; antibiotics; done when goal of treatment shift to palliation instead of cure; address these before withdrawing or withholding ventilation Ethical Principles for withholding and withdrawing life-sustaining treatment - correct answerlife-sustaining treatment should not be withdrawn while patient is receiving paralytic agents. When paralytic drugs are discontinued, patient must demonstrate sufficient motor activity to allow thorough clinical assessment before withdrawal of support Hemodynamic Assessment - correct answerUsed to titrate therapies to a specific end point; detect inadequate tissue perfusion; quantify severity of disease; and guide therapy normal cardiac output (CO) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer4 to 8 L/minute normal central venous pressure (CVP) and Right atrial pressure (RAP) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer2 to 6 mm Hg Normal stroke volume (SV) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer60 to 130 mL/beat normal mixed venous O2 sat (SvO2) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer60% to 75% Normal central venous O2 sat (ScvO2) - correct answer65% to 85% what affects BP reading - correct answerpresence of cardiac dysrhythmias; respiratory variation; shivering; external cuff compression; decreased peripheral perfusion Jugular Venous Pressure - correct answerProvides an estimate of intravascular volume; an indirect measure of central venous pressure (CVP); Normal is 7 to 9 cm jugular venous distention - correct answeroccurs when CVP is elevated due to fluid overload, RV dysfunction, superior vena cava obstruction, right HF Assessment of jugular venous pressure - correct answerlook for highest point of pulsation; measure the vertical distance between this pulsation and the angle of Louis in cm; add 5 cm to this number for an estimation of CVP Lactate - correct answernormal levels is 0.5 to 1.6 mEq/L; determine tissue hypoperfusion in circulatory shock, establish adequacy of resuscitation; assist in diagnosis of patients who have metabolic acidosis Indication of Arterial Line - correct answerhemodynamic instability; assess efficacy of vasoactive medication; frequent ABG analysis Indication of Central Venous Catheter - correct answermeasure right heart filling pressures; estimate fluid status; guide volume resuscitation; assess central venous O2 sat (ScvO2); administer large-volume fluid resuscitation or irritant medications; access to place transvenous pacemaker Indication of Pulmonary Artery Catheter - correct answeridentify and treat cause of hemodynamic instability; assess pulmonary artery pressures; assess mixed venous O2 sat (SvO2); directly measure cardiac output (CO) Invasive Hemodynamic monitoring nursing dx - correct answerineffective tissue perfusion; decreased cardiac output (CO); fluid volume excess or deficit Complication of Invasive hemodynamic monitoring - correct answerthrombosis; pneumothorax; hemothorax; cardiac dysrhythmias; pericardial tamponade components for validating accuracy of invasive hemodynamic monitoring - correct answerpatient positioning (up to 45 degrees); zeroing the transducer; leveling the air-fluid interface (zeroing stopcock) to the phlebostatic axis; assessing dynamic responsiveness (do the square wave test) Reason why zeroing stopcock must be positioned at phlebostatic axis - correct answerIf below, will result in false elevation; if above, will result in false low reading Accurate hemodynamic data - correct answerIt can be obtained when patient is supine, HOB up to 45 degrees, or lateral positions from 30 to 90 degrees Assessing dynamic responsiveness (doing the square wave test) - correct answeractivate the fast flush valve/actuator on the pressure tubing system for at least 1 second; should be done after catheter insertion; once per shift; and after opening the system Overdamped dynamic responsiveness (square wave test) - correct answersquare wave test results no oscillations, upstroke is slurred, or undershoot is not produced Underdamped dynamic responsiveness (square wave test) - correct answersquare wave test results in excessive oscillations Causes of overdamped dynamic responsiveness (square wave test) - correct answerblood clots, blood left in catheter after getting a blood sample, air bubbles, compliant tubing, loose connections, kinks, PIP will drop suddenly Causes of underdamped dynamic responsiveness (square wave test) - correct answerexcessive tubing length (48 inches); small bore tubing; sometimes unknown Arterial Pressure Monitoring - correct answerFor patients at risk for compromised tissue perfusion and volume status; need frequent lab work; has hypo or hypertension; and takes vasoactive agents (ie. Dopamine); Radial artery is site of choice, also femoral and brachial. Most accurate method of getting systemic BP; pressure should be @ 300 mm Hg; gives beat-by-beat info; NIBP should be lower than invasive Causes of higher NIBP compared to invasive - correct answerair bubbles in catheter; failure to zero the transducer air-fluid interface; blood in catheter; blood clot at catheter tip; kinking; catheter tip lodged against arterial wall; soft, compliant tubing; long tubing; too many stopcocks; improper cuff size and placement RAP/CVP Monitoring - correct answerestimate central venous blood volume and right heart function; pressure is obtained from right atrial port of PAC; assess preload of right side of heart; subclavian and internal jugular veins are common insertion site; CVCs contain multiple lumens; assess and guide fluid resuscitation; must be measured @ end expiration and end of ventricular diastole Methods for Determining Accurate RAP - correct answerPre-e method (method of choice); mean of the a Wave; z-point method Complications of RAP/CVP monitoring - correct answercarotid puncture; pneumothorax; hemothorax; perforation of RA or RV; cardiac dysrhythmias Clinical Considerations of RAP/CVP Monitoring - correct answerIf both RAP and stroke index (SI) are low, hypovolemia is the cause; If RAP is high and SI is low, RV dysfunction is the cause; If RAP is low, cause is upright position; if RAP is high, cause is decrease in RV's ability to eject blood, hypervolemia, severe vasoconstriction, mechanical ventilation, pulmonary HTN, right-sided HF Causes of Abnormalities in RAP/CVP Monitoring - correct answeralterations in venous tone, blood volume, or RV contractility Pulmonary Artery Pressure Monitoring (PAC) - correct answermeasure pressure in left side of heart, continuous CO, RV end diastolic volume, RV ejection fraction, and mixed venous O2 sat; used to administer fluids and electrolytes; obtain intermittent thermodilution CO measurements; measures PAP and PAOP; enable transvenous pacing and CCO capabilites; for ease of insertion of catheter, place patient in Trendelenburg position Hemodynamic Parameters Monitored via the PA Catheter - correct answerLV filling pressure; RAP; PA systolic (PAS); PA diastolic (PAD); PA mean pressure (PAPm); PAOP; pulmonary and systemic vascular resistance (PVR and SVR); cardiac output (CO) Normal PAP - correct answer25/10 mm Hg normal PAPm - correct answer15 mm Hg normal PAOP; Normal left atrial pressure (LAP) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer8 to 12 mm Hg How is PAOP obtained - correct answerInflate balloon no more than 1.5 mL of air for no longer than 8 to 10 seconds

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AACN / CCRN / PCCN Critical Care Exam
Questions With 100% Correct Answers
Grade A Certified 2025/26
AACN - correct answercertify nurses; protect consumer by establishing high standards of professional practice


CCRN - correct answercertification for nurses who provide care in critically ill adult, pediatric,
or neonatal populations

PCCN - correct answercertification for nurses who provide acute care in progressive care,
telemetry, and similar units

CNML - correct answercertification for critical care managers and leaders

CCNS - correct answercertification for acute and critical care clinical nurse specialists

Level A (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - correct answermeta-analysis or metasynthesis
studies; results consistently support specific action, intervention, or treatment

Level B (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - correct answerrandomized and nonrandomized
controlled studies; results consistently support specific action, intervention, or treatment

Level C (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - correct answerqualitative, descriptive, or
correlational studies, reviews, or trials with inconsistent results

Level D (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - correct answerPeer-reviewed with clinical
studies to support recommendations

Level E (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - correct answertheory-based evidence from
expert opinions

Level M (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - correct answerManufacturer's recommendation
only

Ask-Tell-Ask (Communication) - correct answerCommunication technique that assesses
concerns before providing info

Situational Awareness (Communication) - correct answerbeing aware of one's surroundings

Calgary Family Assessment - correct answerAssessment that involves structural, developmental,
and functional assessments

,Family Bundle - correct answerProvide structure for planning and carrying out family care;
based on 5 concepts: evaluate, plan; involve; communicate; support (EPICS)

Principlism - correct answerwidely applied ethical approach based of 4 fundamental moral
principles to contemporary ethical dilemmas; respect for autonomy; beneficence;
nonmaleficence; justice

Beneficence - correct answerthe duty to provide benefits to others when in a position to do so, to
help balance harms and benefits; the benefits of an action should outweigh the burdens

Futility - correct answerstates that care should not be given if it is futile in terms of improving
comfort or the medical outcome

Veracity - correct answerstates that persons are obligated to tell the truth in their communication
with others

Fidelity - correct answerrequires that one has a moral duty to be faithful to the commitments
made to others

Elements of Informed Consent - correct answercompetence (capacity); voluntariness; disclosure
of information

Living Will - correct answera witnessed written document or oral statement voluntarily executed
by a person that expresses the person's instructions concerning life-prolonging procedure; not
legally binding in some states

Proxy - correct answera competent adult, not designated to make health care decisions for an
incapacitated person, but is authorized by state statute to make healthcare decisions for the
person

Surrogate - correct answera competent adult designated by a person to make health care
decisions should that person become incapacitated

Patient Self-Determination act (End-of-life issue) - correct answerrequires that all healthcare
facilities that receive medicare or medicaid funding inform their patients about their right to
initiate an advance directive and the right to consent to or refuse medical treatment

Withholding, Limiting, or Withdrawing Therapy - correct answerPriority should be anticipating
patient symptoms; assessment of patient response; titration of therapy to relieve emotional and
physical distress; common meds used are analgesics (ie. Morphine) and anxiolytics (ie.
benzodiazepines)

Ventilator WIthdrawal - correct answerKnown as "terminal weaning"; consist of titration of
ventilator support to minimal levels, removal of ventilator, but not artificial airway, or complete
extubation; titrate pain meds and sedation as needed to relieve symptoms of respiratory distress

, Commonly withheld therapy - correct answervasopressors; antibiotics; done when goal of
treatment shift to palliation instead of cure; address these before withdrawing or withholding
ventilation

Ethical Principles for withholding and withdrawing life-sustaining treatment - correct answerlife-
sustaining treatment should not be withdrawn while patient is receiving paralytic agents. When
paralytic drugs are discontinued, patient must demonstrate sufficient motor activity to allow
thorough clinical assessment before withdrawal of support

Hemodynamic Assessment - correct answerUsed to titrate therapies to a specific end point;
detect inadequate tissue perfusion; quantify severity of disease; and guide therapy

normal cardiac output (CO) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer4 to 8 L/minute

normal central venous pressure (CVP) and Right atrial pressure (RAP) (hemodynamic values) -
correct answer2 to 6 mm Hg

Normal stroke volume (SV) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer60 to 130 mL/beat

normal mixed venous O2 sat (SvO2) (hemodynamic values) - correct answer60% to 75%

Normal central venous O2 sat (ScvO2) - correct answer65% to 85%

what affects BP reading - correct answerpresence of cardiac dysrhythmias; respiratory variation;
shivering; external cuff compression; decreased peripheral perfusion

Jugular Venous Pressure - correct answerProvides an estimate of intravascular volume; an
indirect measure of central venous pressure (CVP); Normal is 7 to 9 cm

jugular venous distention - correct answeroccurs when CVP is elevated due to fluid overload,
RV dysfunction, superior vena cava obstruction, right HF

Assessment of jugular venous pressure - correct answerlook for highest point of pulsation;
measure the vertical distance between this pulsation and the angle of Louis in cm; add 5 cm to
this number for an estimation of CVP

Lactate - correct answernormal levels is 0.5 to 1.6 mEq/L; determine tissue hypoperfusion in
circulatory shock, establish adequacy of resuscitation; assist in diagnosis of patients who have
metabolic acidosis

Indication of Arterial Line - correct answerhemodynamic instability; assess efficacy of
vasoactive medication; frequent ABG analysis

Indication of Central Venous Catheter - correct answermeasure right heart filling pressures;
estimate fluid status; guide volume resuscitation; assess central venous O2 sat (ScvO2);

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