NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
NURS NRNP 6670 MIDTERM EXAM 2025
(MAY- JULY SESSION) ACCURATE SPRING
SESSION)-WALDEN UNIVERSITY
0 out of 1
points
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
,NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
● QUIZ# 1
• Sally is a 54-year-old female who presents for care at the urging of her
employer. She says that she doesn’t think she needs to be there, but the
manager of her division at work strongly suggested that she make an
appointment. She is the evening shift manager in the accounting department of
a major online sales organization. Her role requires meticulous accountability of a
complex system of production statistics, and she has done this exceedingly well
for years. She has been a valued employee, and her work is above reproach. A
few months ago, the company adopted a new software program that required a
complete revamping of Sally’s department. She has not adapted well, and her
resulting anxiety is almost prohibitive of functioning in her role. During her
interview, Sally is very somber and serious, and is clearly having difficulty
with this change. She is distraught over the potential of not being able to do
her job well and meet her immediate
supervisor’s expectations. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the PMHNP
knows that Sally is likely to respond best to:
STUDE
NT [None Given]
ANSWE
R
:
Answers: Pharmacotherapy with
clonazepam
Free-association,
nondirective therapy
Interpersonal therapy
Serotonergic agents
MARKIN
(b) is the correct answer. These clients often recognize that
G
Feedbac there is a problem and will do well with this form of therapy,
k although it is a long and complex process. Clonazepam and
: serotonergic agents are effective with obsessive-compulsive
disorder, but their utility with obsessive-compulsive personality
disorder is less clear. Interpersonal therapy is not among the
therapeutic modalities with any demonstrated success with
this personality disorder.
● QUIZ#
2
1 out of 1 points
Becci is a 31-year-old female who presents to the PMHNP for evaluation
after being referred by her friend who is a client of the practice. She
describes a relatively acute, recent onset of panic attacks. Becci says that
―out of the blue‖ her heart starts to race, her mouth gets dry, she gets
shaky, and feels like she cannot get her breath. She is afraid because her
friend has panic disorder and Becci knows that before her friend got
treatment, she basically would not leave the house in case an attack
happened. The PMHNP recognizes that the immediate priority in
assessment for Becci is:
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
,NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
Selected
Answer: A thorough physical examination
Answers:
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
, NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
A thorough physical
examination A family history of
mental health disease
A urine drug screen
An assessment for
phobic disorder
MARKIN
G
(a) is the correct answer. While these are elements of a panic
Feedbac attack, there are a variety of organic conditions that can cause
k these symptoms. Becci needs a physical examination and
: appropriate laboratory assessment to rule out physiologic
causes of her symptoms, such as thyroid disease. The remaining
elements above will all be part of the mental health assessment
once physical health is determined.
● QUIZ#
3
0 out of 1 points
Mrs. Bowen is a 33-year-old female who presents as a new client
requesting medication for depression. She reports a long history of mood
disorders on and off going back to adolescence. She is very articulate in
describing her history and reports that neither sertraline nor fluoxetine
―worked for her.‖ She was unable to remember the dose or how long she
took the medication. With respect to considering Mrs. Bowen’s medication
history, the PMHNP knows that:
Selected
Answer: Some forms of recurrent depression are best
managed with nonpharmacologic strategies
Answers: An SNRI will likely be the most appropriate
choice if pharmacotherapy is indicated for this
episode
This may be an inaccurate characterization, as depressed
clients tend to overemphasize negatives
In some circumstances clients will purposefully
mischaracterize the efficacy of medications they feel were
ineffective
Some forms of recurrent depression are best managed with
nonpharmacologic strategies
Respons
e
Feedbac
k ● QUIZ# 4
:
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
NURS NRNP 6670 MIDTERM EXAM 2025
(MAY- JULY SESSION) ACCURATE SPRING
SESSION)-WALDEN UNIVERSITY
0 out of 1
points
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
,NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
● QUIZ# 1
• Sally is a 54-year-old female who presents for care at the urging of her
employer. She says that she doesn’t think she needs to be there, but the
manager of her division at work strongly suggested that she make an
appointment. She is the evening shift manager in the accounting department of
a major online sales organization. Her role requires meticulous accountability of a
complex system of production statistics, and she has done this exceedingly well
for years. She has been a valued employee, and her work is above reproach. A
few months ago, the company adopted a new software program that required a
complete revamping of Sally’s department. She has not adapted well, and her
resulting anxiety is almost prohibitive of functioning in her role. During her
interview, Sally is very somber and serious, and is clearly having difficulty
with this change. She is distraught over the potential of not being able to do
her job well and meet her immediate
supervisor’s expectations. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the PMHNP
knows that Sally is likely to respond best to:
STUDE
NT [None Given]
ANSWE
R
:
Answers: Pharmacotherapy with
clonazepam
Free-association,
nondirective therapy
Interpersonal therapy
Serotonergic agents
MARKIN
(b) is the correct answer. These clients often recognize that
G
Feedbac there is a problem and will do well with this form of therapy,
k although it is a long and complex process. Clonazepam and
: serotonergic agents are effective with obsessive-compulsive
disorder, but their utility with obsessive-compulsive personality
disorder is less clear. Interpersonal therapy is not among the
therapeutic modalities with any demonstrated success with
this personality disorder.
● QUIZ#
2
1 out of 1 points
Becci is a 31-year-old female who presents to the PMHNP for evaluation
after being referred by her friend who is a client of the practice. She
describes a relatively acute, recent onset of panic attacks. Becci says that
―out of the blue‖ her heart starts to race, her mouth gets dry, she gets
shaky, and feels like she cannot get her breath. She is afraid because her
friend has panic disorder and Becci knows that before her friend got
treatment, she basically would not leave the house in case an attack
happened. The PMHNP recognizes that the immediate priority in
assessment for Becci is:
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
,NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
Selected
Answer: A thorough physical examination
Answers:
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
, NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
A thorough physical
examination A family history of
mental health disease
A urine drug screen
An assessment for
phobic disorder
MARKIN
G
(a) is the correct answer. While these are elements of a panic
Feedbac attack, there are a variety of organic conditions that can cause
k these symptoms. Becci needs a physical examination and
: appropriate laboratory assessment to rule out physiologic
causes of her symptoms, such as thyroid disease. The remaining
elements above will all be part of the mental health assessment
once physical health is determined.
● QUIZ#
3
0 out of 1 points
Mrs. Bowen is a 33-year-old female who presents as a new client
requesting medication for depression. She reports a long history of mood
disorders on and off going back to adolescence. She is very articulate in
describing her history and reports that neither sertraline nor fluoxetine
―worked for her.‖ She was unable to remember the dose or how long she
took the medication. With respect to considering Mrs. Bowen’s medication
history, the PMHNP knows that:
Selected
Answer: Some forms of recurrent depression are best
managed with nonpharmacologic strategies
Answers: An SNRI will likely be the most appropriate
choice if pharmacotherapy is indicated for this
episode
This may be an inaccurate characterization, as depressed
clients tend to overemphasize negatives
In some circumstances clients will purposefully
mischaracterize the efficacy of medications they feel were
ineffective
Some forms of recurrent depression are best managed with
nonpharmacologic strategies
Respons
e
Feedbac
k ● QUIZ# 4
:
NRNP/PRAC 6670 Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Role II: Adult And Older Adult
