HESI PRACTICE EXAM-PHARM 315
latest update questions with answers
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for
complications during the use of an opioid analgesic? - CORRECT
ANSWERS ✔✔A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
Rationale:
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client
with inflammatory bowel disease is at risk for toxic megacolon or
paralytic ileus related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of
morphine. Adverse effects of morphine do not pose as great a risk
for clients with diabetes or a fracture as for the client with bowel
disease.
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client
diagnosed with heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse
implement prior to administering the digoxin? - CORRECT
ANSWERS ✔✔Assess the serum potassium level.
,Rationale:
Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis
toxicity in persons receiving digoxin. The nurse should monitor the
client's serum potassium levels. Blood pressure and respiratory rate
will not inform the nurse about potential safety issues with
digitalis.
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin
(Niaspan). Which client teaching is most important for the nurse to
provide? - CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔Expected duration of
flushing.
Rationale:
Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent
reason for discontinuing niacin. Inclusion of this effect in client
teaching may promote compliance in taking the medication. While
nutrition tips and managing pruritis are worthwhile instructions to
help clients minimize or cope with normal side effects associated
with niacin (Niaspan), flushing is intense and causes the most
concern for the client.
,A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago
calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and
weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-
specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client? -
CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔Make an appointment to see the
healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a
serious side effect.
Rationale:
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious,
and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should
be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider.
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer
disease. The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is to -
CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
Rationale:
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH
of 3.5 or above which is necessary for pepsinogen inactivity.
, Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe
for a controlled-release oxycodone prescription? - CORRECT
ANSWERS ✔✔Every 12 hours.
Rationale:
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to
relieve moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12
hours provides the best around-the-clock pain management.
Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough
pain on a PRN or as needed schedule. Using a schedule of every 4
to 6 hours may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for
celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for symptom management. The nurse
notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important
for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose? -
CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic
reaction in individuals who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the
latest update questions with answers
Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for
complications during the use of an opioid analgesic? - CORRECT
ANSWERS ✔✔A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease.
Rationale:
The principal indication for opioid use is acute pain, and a client
with inflammatory bowel disease is at risk for toxic megacolon or
paralytic ileus related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of
morphine. Adverse effects of morphine do not pose as great a risk
for clients with diabetes or a fracture as for the client with bowel
disease.
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client
diagnosed with heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse
implement prior to administering the digoxin? - CORRECT
ANSWERS ✔✔Assess the serum potassium level.
,Rationale:
Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis
toxicity in persons receiving digoxin. The nurse should monitor the
client's serum potassium levels. Blood pressure and respiratory rate
will not inform the nurse about potential safety issues with
digitalis.
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin
(Niaspan). Which client teaching is most important for the nurse to
provide? - CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔Expected duration of
flushing.
Rationale:
Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent
reason for discontinuing niacin. Inclusion of this effect in client
teaching may promote compliance in taking the medication. While
nutrition tips and managing pruritis are worthwhile instructions to
help clients minimize or cope with normal side effects associated
with niacin (Niaspan), flushing is intense and causes the most
concern for the client.
,A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago
calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and
weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-
specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client? -
CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔Make an appointment to see the
healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a
serious side effect.
Rationale:
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious,
and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should
be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider.
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer
disease. The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is to -
CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
Rationale:
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH
of 3.5 or above which is necessary for pepsinogen inactivity.
, Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe
for a controlled-release oxycodone prescription? - CORRECT
ANSWERS ✔✔Every 12 hours.
Rationale:
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to
relieve moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12
hours provides the best around-the-clock pain management.
Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough
pain on a PRN or as needed schedule. Using a schedule of every 4
to 6 hours may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for
celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for symptom management. The nurse
notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important
for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose? -
CORRECT ANSWERS ✔✔Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale:
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can lead to an allergic
reaction in individuals who are sensitive to sulfonamides, so the