Allegany College of Maryland Hesi
Fundamentals Practice Test Questions With
Complete Solutions
A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty
of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting
from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the
client, which instruction should the nurse include in
this client's teaching plan?
A. In 8 weeks you will be able to bend at the waist
to reach items on the floor.
B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in
bed to prevent hip dislocation.
C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but
you need assistance when walking.
D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your
physical therapy sessions. Correct Answers The
client's affected hip joint following a
hemiarthroplasty (partial hip replacement) is at risk
of dislocation for 6 months to a year following the
procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation
include placing a pillow between the knees to
maintain abduction of the hips (B). Clients should
be instructed to avoid bending at the waist (A), to
seek assistance for both standing and walking until
they are stable on a walker or cane (C), and to take
pain medication 20 to 30 minutes prior to physical
therapy sessions, rather than waiting until the pain
level is high after their therapy.
Correct Answer: B
,A client is in the radiology department at 0900
when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500
mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The
client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best
intervention for the nurse to implement?
A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a
medication variance form.
B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume
the 0900 schedule in the morning.
C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an
incident report to explain the missed dose.
D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the
schedule to administer daily at 1300. Correct
Answers To ensure that a therapeutic level of
medication is maintained, the nurse should
administer the missed dose as soon as possible,
and revise the administration schedule accordingly
to prevent dangerously increasing the level of the
medication in the bloodstream (D). The nurse
should document the reason for the late dose, but
(A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in
increased blood levels of the drug.
Correct Answer: D
A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV
and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion
site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a
red streak along the vessel above the IV access
,site. Which action should the nurse take at this
time?
A. Administer the medication more rapidly using
the same IV site.
B. Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the
medication.
C. Notify the healthcare provider before
administering the next dose.
D. Give the client a PRN dose of aspirin while the
medication infuses. Correct Answers A
cephalosporin antibiotic that is administered IV
may cause vessel irritation. Rotating the infusion
site minimizes the risk of thrombophlebitis, so an
alternate infusion site should be initiated (B) before
administering the next dose. Rapid administration
(A) of intravenous cephalosporins can potentiate
vessel irritation and increase the risk of
thrombophlebitis. (C) is not necessary to initiate an
alternative IV site. Although aspirin has
antiinflammatory actions, (D) is not indicated.
Correct Answer: B
A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250
ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate
should the nurse set the client's intravenous
infusion pump?
A. 13 ml/hour.
B. 63 ml/hour.
C. 80 ml/hour.
, D. 125 ml/hour. Correct Answers (B) is the correct
calculation: To calculate this problem correctly,
remember that the dose of KCl is not used in the
calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour.
Correct Answer: B
A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg
q6h IVPB. The preparation arrives from the
pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse
plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes.
For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be
set to deliver the secondary infusion? Correct
Answers The infusion rate is calculated as a ratio
proportion problem, i.e., 50 ml/ 20 min : x ml/ 60
min. Multiply extremes and means 50 × 60 /20x
1= 300/20=150
Correct Answer: 150
A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is
scheduled for surgery the next day. What question
is most important for the nurse to include during
the preoperative assessment?
A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you
take?
C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?
Correct Answers Vitamin and mineral supplements
(B) may impact medications used during the
operative period. (A and C) are appropriate
Fundamentals Practice Test Questions With
Complete Solutions
A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty
of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting
from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the
client, which instruction should the nurse include in
this client's teaching plan?
A. In 8 weeks you will be able to bend at the waist
to reach items on the floor.
B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in
bed to prevent hip dislocation.
C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but
you need assistance when walking.
D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your
physical therapy sessions. Correct Answers The
client's affected hip joint following a
hemiarthroplasty (partial hip replacement) is at risk
of dislocation for 6 months to a year following the
procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation
include placing a pillow between the knees to
maintain abduction of the hips (B). Clients should
be instructed to avoid bending at the waist (A), to
seek assistance for both standing and walking until
they are stable on a walker or cane (C), and to take
pain medication 20 to 30 minutes prior to physical
therapy sessions, rather than waiting until the pain
level is high after their therapy.
Correct Answer: B
,A client is in the radiology department at 0900
when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500
mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The
client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best
intervention for the nurse to implement?
A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a
medication variance form.
B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume
the 0900 schedule in the morning.
C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an
incident report to explain the missed dose.
D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the
schedule to administer daily at 1300. Correct
Answers To ensure that a therapeutic level of
medication is maintained, the nurse should
administer the missed dose as soon as possible,
and revise the administration schedule accordingly
to prevent dangerously increasing the level of the
medication in the bloodstream (D). The nurse
should document the reason for the late dose, but
(A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in
increased blood levels of the drug.
Correct Answer: D
A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV
and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion
site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a
red streak along the vessel above the IV access
,site. Which action should the nurse take at this
time?
A. Administer the medication more rapidly using
the same IV site.
B. Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the
medication.
C. Notify the healthcare provider before
administering the next dose.
D. Give the client a PRN dose of aspirin while the
medication infuses. Correct Answers A
cephalosporin antibiotic that is administered IV
may cause vessel irritation. Rotating the infusion
site minimizes the risk of thrombophlebitis, so an
alternate infusion site should be initiated (B) before
administering the next dose. Rapid administration
(A) of intravenous cephalosporins can potentiate
vessel irritation and increase the risk of
thrombophlebitis. (C) is not necessary to initiate an
alternative IV site. Although aspirin has
antiinflammatory actions, (D) is not indicated.
Correct Answer: B
A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250
ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate
should the nurse set the client's intravenous
infusion pump?
A. 13 ml/hour.
B. 63 ml/hour.
C. 80 ml/hour.
, D. 125 ml/hour. Correct Answers (B) is the correct
calculation: To calculate this problem correctly,
remember that the dose of KCl is not used in the
calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour.
Correct Answer: B
A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg
q6h IVPB. The preparation arrives from the
pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse
plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes.
For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be
set to deliver the secondary infusion? Correct
Answers The infusion rate is calculated as a ratio
proportion problem, i.e., 50 ml/ 20 min : x ml/ 60
min. Multiply extremes and means 50 × 60 /20x
1= 300/20=150
Correct Answer: 150
A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is
scheduled for surgery the next day. What question
is most important for the nurse to include during
the preoperative assessment?
A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you
take?
C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?
Correct Answers Vitamin and mineral supplements
(B) may impact medications used during the
operative period. (A and C) are appropriate
