1. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
2. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
3. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
4. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Which
,side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
5. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
6. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which over-the
counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
7. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
, C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
8. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
9. A client on clozapine reports fever and sore throat. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
10. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
2. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
3. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
4. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Which
,side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
5. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during
intercourse. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
6. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which over-the
counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
7. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
, C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
8. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
9. A client on clozapine reports fever and sore throat. What is the
priority action?
A. Reassure and monitor
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Check WBC count
D. Suggest lozenges
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis. A fever + sore
throat may signal low WBC—check labs.
10. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
