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NAVLE Practice Exam 186 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT

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NAVLE Practice Exam 186 Questions with Verified Answers Based on the description of the cytology and clinical symptoms of this cat, the most likely diagnosis is Cryptococcus neoformans. This is a fungal disease that occurs when the organism is inhaled and is disseminated to skin, eyes, CNS, lungs, or other areas. The upper respiratory tract is most often involved and symptoms can include nasal discharge, sneezing, swelling over the nose, and regional lymphadenopathy. If the CNS is involved, seizures can also occur. The disease has been thought to be transmitted most often through infected pigeon droppings. Itraconazole, fluconazole, or amphotericin B are the anti-fungals of choice for this disease. Doxycycline, Trimethoprim sulfa, and Clavamox are all antibiotics and would not address a fungal infection. Lufenuron is a flea treatment that has had some implications for treatment of dermatophytes due to its ability to inhibit chitin. About 1/3 of the cell wall of a fungus i - CORRECT ANSWER A 3-year old female spayed indoor/outdoor domestic short hair presents for congestion and swelling over the bridge of the nose. The swelling over the nose is firm and seems to be subcutaneous. There is also mild enlargement of the mandibular lymph nodes. You perform cytology from a fine needle aspirate of the swelling over the nose and see narrow, budding, thick-walled yeasts surrounded by clear capsules (see picture). You also detected a lesion in the retina on fundic examination. Which of the following treatments would be indicated? Doxycycline Itraconazole Trimethoprim sulfa Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid Lufenuron A dog presents to your clinic with tenesmus and swelling near the anus as seen in the image. On examination, there is a fluctuant swelling lateral to the anus, and on rectal exam, you note lateral dilatation of the rectum. Which of the following is the most common signalment for dogs presenting with this problem? They are younger intact females There is no age or sex predilection They are older intact males They are older intact females They are younger intact males - CORRECT ANSWER This is a case of a perineal hernia. Older intact male dogs are most commonly affected. Overrepresented breeds include Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese, and Boston terriers. The hernia results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm. It is thought that there may be a hormonal component which results in weakening with time. This case description is consistent with stage I of labor in the horse. The first stage of foaling typically lasts 30 minutes to 4 hours. During this stage, mares act restless and may exhibit signs similar to colic such as flank watching, pawing, and constantly getting up and down. When the amniotic sac ruptures ("water breaks"), there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. Usually, within about 5 minutes, the second stage of labor begins and the foals feet and nose appear at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. If a red, velvety, membrane is seen, this is the chorioallantois which indicates premature placental separation which can impair oxygen delivery to the fetus and can result in death of the foal. Usually, the muzzle will emerge from the amnion by the time the foal's hips pass through the pelvis but if not, the amnion can be gently broken and removed. Usually, the umbilica - CORRECT ANSWER A pregnant mare was brought out to your barn for observation in anticipation of parturition. After several hours of restless behavior, several gallons of allantoic fluid rush out from the vulva. Which of the following would you expect to happen next for a normal parturition?

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NAVLE Practice Exam 186 Questions with Verified Answers
Based on the description of the cytology and clinical symptoms of this cat, the
most likely diagnosis is Cryptococcus neoformans. This is a fungal disease that
occurs when the organism is inhaled and is disseminated to skin, eyes, CNS, lungs,
or other areas. The upper respiratory tract is most often involved and symptoms
can include nasal discharge, sneezing, swelling over the nose, and regional
lymphadenopathy. If the CNS is involved, seizures can also occur. The disease has
been thought to be transmitted most often through infected pigeon droppings.
Itraconazole, fluconazole, or amphotericin B are the anti-fungals of choice for this
disease. Doxycycline, Trimethoprim sulfa, and Clavamox are all antibiotics and
would not address a fungal infection. Lufenuron is a flea treatment that has had
some implications for treatment of dermatophytes due to its ability to inhibit
chitin. About 1/3 of the cell wall of a fungus i - CORRECT ANSWER A 3-year old
female spayed indoor/outdoor domestic short hair presents for congestion and
swelling over the bridge of the nose. The swelling over the nose is firm and seems
to be subcutaneous. There is also mild enlargement of the mandibular lymph
nodes. You perform cytology from a fine needle aspirate of the swelling over the
nose and see narrow, budding, thick-walled yeasts surrounded by clear capsules
(see picture). You also detected a lesion in the retina on fundic examination.
Which of the following treatments would be indicated?
Doxycycline
Itraconazole
Trimethoprim sulfa
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
Lufenuron

A dog presents to your clinic with tenesmus and swelling near the anus as seen in
the image. On examination, there is a fluctuant swelling lateral to the anus, and
on rectal exam, you note lateral dilatation of the rectum. Which of the following is
the most common signalment for dogs presenting with this problem?
They are younger intact females
There is no age or sex predilection

,They are older intact males
They are older intact females
They are younger intact males - CORRECT ANSWER This is a case of a perineal
hernia. Older intact male dogs are most commonly affected. Overrepresented
breeds include Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese, and Boston terriers. The hernia
results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm. It is thought that there may be a
hormonal component which results in weakening with time.

This case description is consistent with stage I of labor in the horse. The first stage
of foaling typically lasts 30 minutes to 4 hours. During this stage, mares act
restless and may exhibit signs similar to colic such as flank watching, pawing, and
constantly getting up and down. When the amniotic sac ruptures ("water
breaks"), there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. Usually,
within about 5 minutes, the second stage of labor begins and the foals feet and
nose appear at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. If a red,
velvety, membrane is seen, this is the chorioallantois which indicates premature
placental separation which can impair oxygen delivery to the fetus and can result
in death of the foal. Usually, the muzzle will emerge from the amnion by the time
the foal's hips pass through the pelvis but if not, the amnion can be gently broken
and removed. Usually, the umbilica - CORRECT ANSWER A pregnant mare was
brought out to your barn for observation in anticipation of parturition. After
several hours of restless behavior, several gallons of allantoic fluid rush out from
the vulva. Which of the following would you expect to happen next for a normal
parturition?
The placenta is expelled from the vulva
The hind legs of the foal emerge from the vulva
The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva
The red, velvety, chorioallantoic membrane emerges from the vulva

Pyrethrins alter the activity of the sodium ion channels of nerves, which prolongs
the period of sodium conductance. This increases the length of depolarization
resulting in repetitive nerve firing. Cats are particularly sensitive to pyrethrin-
containing products and can develop clinical signs within hours after
administration. Affected animals should be bathed to remove remaining product.
Minor clinical signs such as hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-
limiting and do not require treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can
be achieved with methocarbamol (Robaxin). - CORRECT ANSWER A 2-year old

,male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and ataxic with
muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on formulation
for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally applied on
the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat the cat's
clinical signs?

This is the clinical and histologic appearance of purpura hemorrhagica. It is a type-
III hypersensitivity which is when antigen-antibody complexes accumulate,
leading to disease. Purpura hemorrhagica most commonly occurs 2-4 weeks after
exposure to certain infectious agents or vaccines. This condition is most
commonly seen subsequent to infection with Streptococcus equi subsp. equi or
vaccination against it but it can also be associated with other pathogens,
particularly respiratory pathogens including other streptococcal species and
equine influenza. Regardless of the cause, purpura hemorrhagica results from
accumulation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on blood vessel walls
and activate a strong immune response (vasculitis). The leaky blood vessels lead
to hemorrhage and edema. Bastard strangles refers to the condition when
Streptococcus equi subsp. equi creates abscesses in unusual sites (other than the
- CORRECT ANSWER A 2-year old mare presents to you several weeks after
recovering from a mild upper respiratory infection. She now presents with edema
and sloughing of the legs (see image), chest and abdomen as well as mucosal
petechial hemorrhages. She is sore and reluctant to move. Biopsy of the skin
lesion is consistent with aseptic necrotizing vasculitis. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Type I hypersensitivity
Purpura hemorrhagica
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
Bastard strangles
Cantharidin toxicity

The diagnosis is Listeriosis. Listeria monocytogenes can effectively be treated in
the early stages of the disease with penicillin, ampicillin, or tetracycline.
Intramuscular procaine penicillin for example has a withdrawal of 10 days for
slaughter (meat) and 48 hours for milk if the animal is lactating. Other choices of
approved antimicrobials would also likely be effective since L. monocytogenes is
susceptible to most antimicrobials. For a list of approved animal drugs see
www.farad.org/vetgram. FARAD is the United States Food Animal Residue

, Avoidance Databank which gives withdrawal information as well as a list of
prohibited drugs. The other drugs listed as choices here are prohibited and cannot
be legally used in food animals in the USA. - CORRECT ANSWER A 2-year old
nonlactating dairy cow in California has a sudden onset of head tilt and drooling.
The owner also reports that she appears less active and less interested in feed
than normal, and today is circling in one direction in the pen. You examine her
and find T=105F (40.6 C), HR=96, and RR=32. There is ptosis, drooped ear, and
weakness of the lips on the affected side. You take a lumbosacral spinal tap (see
photo), and submit the CSF to your lab. The results show elevated protein and
WBCs, with the cell type being mainly monocytes. The lab reports seeing some
gram positive bacteria in the monocytes of the CSF. Based on these findings what
is the best treatment for this condition?
Metronidazole
Chloramphenicol
Enrofloxacin
Metoclopramide
Penicillin

Hookworms (Ancylostoma and Uncinaria) are intestinal parasites that suck blood
and can cause anemia, enteritis, coughing during larval migration, and dermatitis.
Any young dog that is failing to thrive and/or has pale mucous membranes should
be tested for intestinal parasites. Hookworm dermatitis, also called
Ancylostomiasis is typically seen in conditions with poor sanitation and/or in
kennels.Hookworms can be transmitted in utero, during nursing, or via 3rd stage
larva penetrating the skin. The most commonly affected skin areas are the pads
and interdigital spaces of the feet, but can include any surface that contacts the
ground. The larva migrate through the dog's tissues before arriving in the
intestines. They cause significant anemia, failure to thrive, or sudden death in
young dogs. In mild cases, deworming protocols are often enough; with severe
cases blood transfusions and parenteral treatments are often nece - CORRECT
ANSWER A 6-month old Chocolate Labrador presents for limping and failure to
gain weight. He is housed in an outdoor kennel with other hunting dogs. He is fed
a large breed dry puppy food. He received his puppy shots at 8, 12, and 16 weeks
old. He is quiet, alert, and responsive. His body condition score is 3/9, with rib
exposure and poor fat deposition. His mucous membranes are pale pink, with a
capillary refill time of 2 seconds. His heart and lungs auscult normally. No
abnormalities are felt on abdominal palpation. He is an intact male, and both

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