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TEST BANK FOR APEA PRE-PREDICTOR WITH 900+ QUESTIONS AND RESPECTIVE ANSWERS... 100% VERIFIED AND GUARANTEED

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APEA PRE-PREDICTOR APEA PRE-PREDICTOR APEA PRE-PREDICTOR APEA PRE-PREDICTOR

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APEAPRE-PREDICTOR2024-2025ACTUALEXAM TEST f f f f f




BANK 900+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
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DETAILEDANSWERS f




A 6 yo had an acute onset of fever, pharyngitis, and headache 2 days ago. Today, he presents with cervical
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lymphadenopathy and sandpaper textured rash everywhere except on his face. A rapid streptococcal
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antigen test is positive. The remainder of the assessment in unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis
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and the most appropriate action? - answer-Scarlet fever; treat with antibiotics.
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This disease is due to infection with Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcus. The rash is thought to be due
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to a systemic reaction to the toxin produced by the microorganism. The rash fades with pressure and
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ultimately desquamates. A deep, nonblanching rash on the flexor surfaces of the skin is referred to as pastia
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lines.
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A patient has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is
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prescribed. When should the nurse practitioner check the patient's TSH? - answer-6 weeks.
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The half-life of levothyroxine, the treatment of choice for thyroid replacement, is 7 days. The earliest that
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meaningful changes will be observed is at 4-6 weeks. Therefore, the NP should wait a minimum of 4-6
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weeks before checking the patient's TSH.
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A 15 yo malue has a history of cryptorchidism which was surgically repaired. Because of this information, it
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is essential for the nurse practitioner to teach him about: - answer-testicular self- examination.
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Cryptorchidism, even with surgical repair, is associated with increased risk for testicular cancer. f f f f f f f f f f f f




The treatment of choice for chronic bacterial prostatitis (CBP) is: - answer-a flouroquinolone twice daily for
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3 weeks to 4 months.
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The treatment of chice is a flouroquinolone twice daily for 3 weeks to 4 months. The cure rate with
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Bactrim-DS is only about 30-40%.
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A 25 yo female has a history of frequent candidal vaginal infections in the past year. She is in a
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monogamous sexual relationship and uses and IUD for contraception. Of the following, which is the most
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likely underlying conidition predisposing her to recurring candidal vaginitis? - answer-Diabetes.
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A common underlying cause of frequent infections is diabetes mellitus. Pregnancy increases the incidence
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of candidiasis, but is unlikely a factor with this patient.
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,Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the S3 heart sound? - answer-The sound is high-pitched and
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occurs just prior to the S1 heart sound.
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The S3 heart sound is low-pitched and occurs just after the S2 heart sound. It is produced by rapid
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ventricular filling and is best auscultated in the mitral area. It is a common finding with right-sided heart
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failure, rapid growth, and the last trimester of pregnancy.
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Following the finding of prostate gland abnormalities on DRE, the NP orders the appropriate labs. Whem
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preparing to review lab reports with the patient, the nurse practitioner knows all of the following are true
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EXCEPT: - answer-normal PSA is 10ng/ml or less.
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Normal PSA is 4ng/ml or less. PSA levels greater the 4 and less than 10 are associated with BPH. A 10 or
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greater PSA level suggests prostate cancer. Positive serum acid phosphatase is associated with malignancy
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of the prostate gland with bone metasasis.
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A 66 yo female presents to your clinic. She states that yesterday evening she had chest pain for 20-30
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minutes. Which finding most strongly correlates with myocardial infarction? - answer-Elevated Troponin I
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levels
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An elevated creatinine kinase (CK) is not diagnostic of a myocardial infarction (MI). CK may be elevated
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from an IM injection, surgery, ot any type of extensive skeletal muscle trauma or prolonged, strenuous
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physical exertion. ST segment depression on EKG usually indicates an ischemic myocardium, but, not
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necessarily, one post-MI. Elevated ST seghments reflect mycardial damage. MB bands are specific for
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myocardial smooth muscle. If these are elevated, the patient MAY HAVE had a very recent MI. The most
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accurate marker of cardiac damage, because it is more specific and sensitive than CK MB, is a troponin
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measurement.
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What is a secondary cause of hyperlipidemia? - answer-hypothyroidism
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Hypothyroidism is a common secondary cause of hyperlipidemia. In the evaluation of a patient with f f f f f f f f f f f f f f



hyperlipidemia, a TSH should always be checked and corrected before attempting treatment for
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hyperlipidemia. Other possible causes of seconday hyperlipidemia include pregnancy, excessive weight
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gain, excessive alcohol intake, insulin resistance or deficiency, obstructive liver disease, and uremia.
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Some medications can produce secondary hypothyroidism too: thiazide diuretics, some beta-blockers, oral
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contraceptives, and corticosteroids.
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A 35-yo male presents with a complaint of low pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced for of
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stream. The nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. The NP would appropriately collect all of
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the following specimens EXCEPT a: sterile in-and-out catheter urine specimen. - answer-A sterile
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in-and-out catheter specimen would identify only organisms in the bladder and would not differentiate
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,between bladder, kidney, or prostate site infection. The sequence for obtaining specimens when prostat
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infection is suspected is: 1. voided urethral urine, 2. Voided mid-stream bladder urine, and 3. voided post-
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prostate massage urine. f f




A 24 yo female taking an oral contraceptive has missed her last 2 pills. What should the nurse practitioner
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advise her to do to minimize her risk of pregnancy? - answer-Double today's dose and tomorrow's dose and
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use a barrier method for the rest of the month.
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If 2 mills are missed on consecutive days, the next 2 days' doseages should be doubled and a barrier method
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recommended for the remainder of the cycle.
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A 50yo, non-smoker, with no co-morbidity presents to the clinica and is diagnosed with pna. His vital signs
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are normal except for temperature of 101.6 degrees. A sputum specimen is collected and sent for culture
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and sensitivity. What action should the nurse practitioner take today? - answer-Start Clarithromycin
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(Biaxin) 500mg 2 times a day for 10 to 14 days.
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Most treatment guidelines for outpatient pna in non-smokers without co-morbidity and 60 years of age or
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younger, recommend erythromycin or another macrolide like Biaxin. Pcn s indicated for patient swith
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pneumococcal pna and ciprofloxacin is recommended for Legionella species.
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A 38 year old patient is being treated the by the NP for heavy vaginal bleeding secondary to multiple
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uterine leiomyomas. Her uterus is greater than 12 weeks gestational size, her hematocrit is 28%, and she
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has not responded to hormonal therapy. Which of the following would be the most appropriate
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intervention at this time? - answer-Obtain a gynecological consultation
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Gynecological consultation is recommended for a patient with a uterus greater that 12 weeks gestational f f f f f f f f f f f f f f



size, significant anemia (hct <30),. o a normal endometrial biopsy with failure to respond to hormonal
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therapy.
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What maternal situation is considered an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding? - answer-Early HIV
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detection
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There are few absolute contraindications to breastfeeding. HIV infection and IV drug abuse are 2
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contraindications.
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A 21 yo college student presents to the sudent health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge
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from her left eye. The nurse practitioner should suspect: - answer-gonococcal conjunctivitis.
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A purulent and copious discharge should alert the nurse practitioner to the likely possibility of gonococcal
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or chlamydial conjunctivitis. Noth require systemic anitbiotic treatment and immediate referral to an
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opthalmologist for evaluation.
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, Babies should begin oral iron supplementation: - answer-4-6 months of age.
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Generally, full term infants who are breadt-fed have sufficient stores of iron to last through the first 4-6
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months of life. Earlier supplementation may be m=necessary for premature infants, infants who are
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breastyfed exclusively beyond the first 6 months of age, and infants who begin drinking cow's milk prior to 1
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year of age.
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Which item is NOT implicated in erectile dysfunction (ED)? - answer-Urinary tract infection (UTI)
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Many systemic disease like diabetes, hypo/hyperthyroidism, Cushing's syndrome can result in ED> Many
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medications can cause ED, particularly the antihypertensives (Vasotec) and the antidepressants (Paxil).
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Other activities like heavy smoking, drug abuse, and alcoholism can also lead to ED.
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Expected spriometry readings when the patient has chronic emphysema include: - answer-Increased total
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lung capacity (TLC).
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Residual volume is increased, Volume Capacity is decreased, FEV-1 in decreased, and total lung capacity is
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increased with emphysema. RV, VC, and FEV-1 spirometry readings are the same whether COPD is due to
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chronic emphysema or chronic bronchitis, however, TLC is normal or only slightly increased with chronic
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bronchitis.
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Physical exam findings consistent with emphysema include all of the following EXCEPT: - answer-pallor and
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cyanosis of the mucosa and nailbeds.
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Pallor and cyanosis is typical of chronic bronchitis (type B COPD, the "blue boater"_. Emphysema (Type A
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COPD, the "pink puffer") is not associated with pallor or cyanosis. Increased AP dianeter produces a "barrel
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chest". The normal chest is elliptical whereas the barrel chest is round. The muscles of the thorax appear
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thin and wasted while the accessory muscles of respiration are hypertrophied. Breath sounds are minished
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and cough is weak and ineffective.
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Which laboratory test is useful in the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion? - answer-Serial quantitative
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beta-huma chorionic gonadotropin levels.
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Serial quantitative beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels are the most useful for diagnosing
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spontaneous abortion. The levels progressively decline.
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The most acceoted recommendation regarding skin cancer prevention is: - answer-avoidance of excessive
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sun exposure.
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