ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam New 2025
Test Bank with 350 Questions from Actual Exam,
Correct Answers and Rationale
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. Which oxygen delivery method should the nurse
anticipate for a client with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min?
A) Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B) Simple face mask at 6 L/min
C) Non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min
D) Venturi mask at 4 L/min
Correct Answer: C) Non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 indicates moderate distress; a non-rebreather mask delivers
high oxygen concentration (up to 100%) to correct hypoxemia effectively, surpassing lower-flow
options like nasal cannula or Venturi mask.
Question 2
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which INR range should the nurse expect
as therapeutic?
A) 1.0-1.5
B) 2.0-3.0
C) 3.5-4.0
D) 4.5-5.0
Correct Answer: B) 2.0-3.0
Rationale: For atrial fibrillation, the therapeutic INR range is 2.0-3.0 to prevent
thromboembolism while minimizing bleeding risk. Higher ranges apply to mechanical valves,
not AF.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client with diabetes. When is the peak action
of this medication?
A) 15-30 minutes
B) 1-2 hours
C) 4-6 hours
D) 8-12 hours
Correct Answer: B) 1-2 hours
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, peaks at 1-2 hours, requiring the nurse to monitor
for hypoglycemia during this window. Timing aligns with post-meal glucose spikes.
Question 4
A 4-year-old child is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which finding should the nurse report
immediately?
A) Fever of 101°F (38.3°C)
,B) Positive Kernig’s sign
C) Irritability
D) Clear nasal discharge
Correct Answer: B) Positive Kernig’s sign
Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign (pain with leg extension) suggests meningeal irritation, a
critical indicator of meningitis requiring urgent intervention. Fever and irritability are
nonspecific.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction. Which discharge instruction is most
important?
A) “Avoid lifting more than 10 pounds for 6 weeks.”
B) “Take your aspirin only when you feel chest pain.”
C) “Resume normal activity immediately.”
D) “Stop your beta-blocker if you feel tired.”
Correct Answer: A) “Avoid lifting more than 10 pounds for 6 weeks.”
Rationale: Limiting physical strain prevents cardiac stress post-MI. Aspirin is daily, beta-
blockers should continue, and immediate activity resumption is unsafe.
Question 6
A client with bipolar disorder is started on lithium. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor closely?
A) Serum potassium
B) Serum sodium
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B) Serum sodium
Rationale: Lithium can cause sodium imbalances (e.g., hyponatremia), affecting toxicity risk.
Levels are monitored to maintain therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L).
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation. Which finding requires immediate action?
A) Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
B) Fetal heart rate of 130 beats/min
C) Mild pedal edema
D) Contractions every 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A) Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Rationale: BP of 140/90 at 36 weeks suggests preeclampsia, a medical emergency. Normal FHR,
mild edema, and infrequent contractions are less urgent.
Question 8
A client with a new colostomy asks, “How do I know if it’s working?” What is the nurse’s best
response?
A) “You’ll see stool in the pouch within 24-48 hours.”
B) “It won’t work until the swelling goes down.”
C) “You’ll feel pain when it starts.”
,D) “Check for urine output instead.”
Correct Answer: A) “You’ll see stool in the pouch within 24-48 hours.”
Rationale: Normal colostomy function resumes within 24-48 hours post-surgery, indicated by
stool output. Pain or urine output is unrelated.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which behavior should the nurse expect?
A) Frequent napping
B) Excessive exercise
C) Increased appetite
D) Social engagement
Correct Answer: B) Excessive exercise
Rationale: Clients with anorexia often engage in compulsive exercise to burn calories, a hallmark
of the disorder. Other options contradict typical presentation.
Question 10
A client is receiving furosemide IV for fluid overload. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, risking hypokalemia.
Monitoring is critical to prevent arrhythmias.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client post-thyroidectomy. Which finding indicates a potential
complication?
A) Hoarseness
B) Tingling around the mouth
C) Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)
D) Pain at the incision site
Correct Answer: B) Tingling around the mouth
Rationale: Tingling suggests hypocalcemia from parathyroid damage, a serious complication.
Hoarseness and pain are expected; mild fever is normal.
Question 12
A client with cirrhosis asks why they feel so tired. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “Your liver isn’t removing toxins effectively.”
B) “You need to eat more protein.”
C) “It’s because of your high blood sugar.”
D) “Your heart is working too hard.”
Correct Answer: A) “Your liver isn’t removing toxins effectively.”
Rationale: Fatigue in cirrhosis results from toxin buildup (e.g., ammonia) due to impaired liver
function, a concise and accurate explanation.
, Question 13
A nurse is teaching a parent about acetaminophen dosing for a 2-year-old. What is the correct
dose if the child weighs 24 lbs?
A) 80 mg
B) 120 mg
C) 160 mg
D) 200 mg
Correct Answer: C) 160 mg
Rationale: Acetaminophen dosing is 10-15 mg/kg. For 24 lbs (10.9 kg), 15 mg/kg × 10.9 = ~163
mg, closest to 160 mg, a standard pediatric dose.
Question 14
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse
include?
A) “Take it with milk to avoid stomach upset.”
B) “Brush your teeth regularly to prevent gum issues.”
C) “Stop the medication if you feel dizzy.”
D) “Expect your urine to turn blue.”
Correct Answer: B) “Brush your teeth regularly to prevent gum issues.”
Rationale: Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia; oral hygiene is key. Milk can reduce
absorption, and stopping abruptly risks seizures.
Question 15
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate action?
A) 50 mL of serosanguineous drainage
B) Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
C) Tidaling in the water seal chamber
D) Chest tube secured to the chest wall
Correct Answer: B) Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, a potential emergency requiring
intervention. Tidaling is normal; drainage and securing are expected.
Question 16
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is washing their hands repeatedly. What
should the nurse do?
A) Stop the client immediately
B) Set a time limit for handwashing
C) Encourage the behavior to reduce anxiety
D) Ignore the behavior completely
Correct Answer: B) Set a time limit for handwashing
Rationale: Setting limits helps manage OCD rituals therapeutically while reducing anxiety,
avoiding reinforcement or abrupt confrontation.
Question 17
A nurse is preparing a client for a lumbar puncture. Which position should the client assume?
Test Bank with 350 Questions from Actual Exam,
Correct Answers and Rationale
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. Which oxygen delivery method should the nurse
anticipate for a client with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min?
A) Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B) Simple face mask at 6 L/min
C) Non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min
D) Venturi mask at 4 L/min
Correct Answer: C) Non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 indicates moderate distress; a non-rebreather mask delivers
high oxygen concentration (up to 100%) to correct hypoxemia effectively, surpassing lower-flow
options like nasal cannula or Venturi mask.
Question 2
A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which INR range should the nurse expect
as therapeutic?
A) 1.0-1.5
B) 2.0-3.0
C) 3.5-4.0
D) 4.5-5.0
Correct Answer: B) 2.0-3.0
Rationale: For atrial fibrillation, the therapeutic INR range is 2.0-3.0 to prevent
thromboembolism while minimizing bleeding risk. Higher ranges apply to mechanical valves,
not AF.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client with diabetes. When is the peak action
of this medication?
A) 15-30 minutes
B) 1-2 hours
C) 4-6 hours
D) 8-12 hours
Correct Answer: B) 1-2 hours
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, peaks at 1-2 hours, requiring the nurse to monitor
for hypoglycemia during this window. Timing aligns with post-meal glucose spikes.
Question 4
A 4-year-old child is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which finding should the nurse report
immediately?
A) Fever of 101°F (38.3°C)
,B) Positive Kernig’s sign
C) Irritability
D) Clear nasal discharge
Correct Answer: B) Positive Kernig’s sign
Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign (pain with leg extension) suggests meningeal irritation, a
critical indicator of meningitis requiring urgent intervention. Fever and irritability are
nonspecific.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction. Which discharge instruction is most
important?
A) “Avoid lifting more than 10 pounds for 6 weeks.”
B) “Take your aspirin only when you feel chest pain.”
C) “Resume normal activity immediately.”
D) “Stop your beta-blocker if you feel tired.”
Correct Answer: A) “Avoid lifting more than 10 pounds for 6 weeks.”
Rationale: Limiting physical strain prevents cardiac stress post-MI. Aspirin is daily, beta-
blockers should continue, and immediate activity resumption is unsafe.
Question 6
A client with bipolar disorder is started on lithium. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor closely?
A) Serum potassium
B) Serum sodium
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B) Serum sodium
Rationale: Lithium can cause sodium imbalances (e.g., hyponatremia), affecting toxicity risk.
Levels are monitored to maintain therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L).
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation. Which finding requires immediate action?
A) Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
B) Fetal heart rate of 130 beats/min
C) Mild pedal edema
D) Contractions every 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A) Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Rationale: BP of 140/90 at 36 weeks suggests preeclampsia, a medical emergency. Normal FHR,
mild edema, and infrequent contractions are less urgent.
Question 8
A client with a new colostomy asks, “How do I know if it’s working?” What is the nurse’s best
response?
A) “You’ll see stool in the pouch within 24-48 hours.”
B) “It won’t work until the swelling goes down.”
C) “You’ll feel pain when it starts.”
,D) “Check for urine output instead.”
Correct Answer: A) “You’ll see stool in the pouch within 24-48 hours.”
Rationale: Normal colostomy function resumes within 24-48 hours post-surgery, indicated by
stool output. Pain or urine output is unrelated.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which behavior should the nurse expect?
A) Frequent napping
B) Excessive exercise
C) Increased appetite
D) Social engagement
Correct Answer: B) Excessive exercise
Rationale: Clients with anorexia often engage in compulsive exercise to burn calories, a hallmark
of the disorder. Other options contradict typical presentation.
Question 10
A client is receiving furosemide IV for fluid overload. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, risking hypokalemia.
Monitoring is critical to prevent arrhythmias.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client post-thyroidectomy. Which finding indicates a potential
complication?
A) Hoarseness
B) Tingling around the mouth
C) Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)
D) Pain at the incision site
Correct Answer: B) Tingling around the mouth
Rationale: Tingling suggests hypocalcemia from parathyroid damage, a serious complication.
Hoarseness and pain are expected; mild fever is normal.
Question 12
A client with cirrhosis asks why they feel so tired. What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “Your liver isn’t removing toxins effectively.”
B) “You need to eat more protein.”
C) “It’s because of your high blood sugar.”
D) “Your heart is working too hard.”
Correct Answer: A) “Your liver isn’t removing toxins effectively.”
Rationale: Fatigue in cirrhosis results from toxin buildup (e.g., ammonia) due to impaired liver
function, a concise and accurate explanation.
, Question 13
A nurse is teaching a parent about acetaminophen dosing for a 2-year-old. What is the correct
dose if the child weighs 24 lbs?
A) 80 mg
B) 120 mg
C) 160 mg
D) 200 mg
Correct Answer: C) 160 mg
Rationale: Acetaminophen dosing is 10-15 mg/kg. For 24 lbs (10.9 kg), 15 mg/kg × 10.9 = ~163
mg, closest to 160 mg, a standard pediatric dose.
Question 14
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse
include?
A) “Take it with milk to avoid stomach upset.”
B) “Brush your teeth regularly to prevent gum issues.”
C) “Stop the medication if you feel dizzy.”
D) “Expect your urine to turn blue.”
Correct Answer: B) “Brush your teeth regularly to prevent gum issues.”
Rationale: Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia; oral hygiene is key. Milk can reduce
absorption, and stopping abruptly risks seizures.
Question 15
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate action?
A) 50 mL of serosanguineous drainage
B) Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
C) Tidaling in the water seal chamber
D) Chest tube secured to the chest wall
Correct Answer: B) Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, a potential emergency requiring
intervention. Tidaling is normal; drainage and securing are expected.
Question 16
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is washing their hands repeatedly. What
should the nurse do?
A) Stop the client immediately
B) Set a time limit for handwashing
C) Encourage the behavior to reduce anxiety
D) Ignore the behavior completely
Correct Answer: B) Set a time limit for handwashing
Rationale: Setting limits helps manage OCD rituals therapeutically while reducing anxiety,
avoiding reinforcement or abrupt confrontation.
Question 17
A nurse is preparing a client for a lumbar puncture. Which position should the client assume?
