2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers
1. During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or 6. An enlarged liver with a smooth tender edge may suggest:
respiratory distress raises concerns of:
right-sided heart failure.
peripartum cardiomyopathy
Explanation:
Explanation: An enlarged liver with a smooth, tender edge suggests inflammation, as in hepatitis, or venous
Dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises congestion, as in right-sided heart failure. Cirrhosis, hematochromatosis (increased amount of
concerns of possible infection, asthma, pulmonary embolus, or peripartum cardiomyopathy. iron in the blood), and lymphoma produce an enlarged liver with a firm, nontender edge. An
enlarged liver that is firm or hard and has an irregular edge or surface suggests hepatocellular
2. The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and
carcinoma.
great vessels is the:
7. New onset hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage is:
mediastinum
Explanation: preeclampsia
The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great Explanation:
vessels is the mediastinum. The right and left pleural cavities, are on either side of the Chronic hypertension occurs when systolic BP (SBP) >140 mm Hg or diastolic BP (DBP) >90
mediastinum and those contain the lungs. The visceral pleura encloses the lung. The pericardium mm Hg documented prior to pregnancy, before 20 weeks, or beyond 12 weeks postpartum.
surrounds the heart. Gestational hypertension refers to elevated blood pressure detected after 20 weeks gestation in
the absence of proteinuria. Pre-eclampsia occurs in a woman who was previously normotensive
3. A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an
but now has new onset hypertension with either proteinuria or end-organ damage. Primary
abnormality in cranial nerves: hypertension, formerly known as essential hypertension, is a disorder which is associated with
CN I elevated blood pressure and an unidentifiable cause.
Explanation:
8. The psoas muscle group and muscles of the abdominal wall assist with:
Cranial Nerve I is the olfactory nerve responsible for the sense of smell. To test the sense of
smell, the examiner presents the patient with familiar and nonirritating odors. A person should flexion
normally perceive odor on each side and correctly identify the source. Cranial Nerves II and III Explanation:
assess vision and pupillary reaction. Cranial Nerve VIII tests the hearing and balance. The psoas muscle group and muscles of the abdominal wall assist with flexion. The deep
intrinsic muscles of the back assist with extension. The abdominal muscles and intrinsic muscles
4. A transient ischemic attack is:
of the back assist with rotation. Lateral bending uses the abdominal muscles and intrinsic
a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, muscles of the back.
without acute infarction
9. "Preterm small for gestational age" (SGA) infants are prone to:
Explanation:
TIA is now defined as “a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, hypocalcemia
spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction.” Ischemic stroke is “an infarction of Explanation:
central nervous system tissue” that may be symptomatic or silent. The other terms are not related "Preterm appropriate for gestational age" (AGA) infants are prone to respiratory distress
to the new definitions. syndrome, apnea, patent ductus arteriosus with left-to-right shunt, and infection. "Preterm small
for gestational age" (SGA) infants are more likely to experience asphyxia, hypoglycemia, and
5. The term asteatosis refers to:
hypocalcemia.
skin that is dry, flaky, rough, and often itchy
Explanation:
Physiologic changes of aging include loss of elastic turgor, and wrinkling. Skin that appears dry,
flaky, rough, and itchy is termed asteatosis. Sun exposure can cause damage to the skin 10. Swelling noted 1-2 inches below the knee joint and on the medial surface of the knee
resembling an appearance as weather beaten, thickened, yellowed, and deeply furrowed. would be suggestive of:
Seborrheic keratosis appear as raised, yellowish lesions that feel greasy, velvety, or warty.
Painful vesicular lesions in a dermatomal distribution may suggest herpes zoster.
about:blank 1/71 about:blank 2/71
,2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers
be present on the calcaneus as bony projections and may cause numbness, tenderness, or pain.
Localized tenderness on examination of the ankle joint could be suggestive of arthritis, infection
of the ankle, or ligamentous injury. Tenderness along the posterior medial malleolus suggests
posterior tibial tendinitis.
15. When examining the conjunctiva and sclera, have the patient look upward and then:
depress both lower lids with your thumbs, exposing the sclera and conjunctiva
Explanation:
When examining the conjunctiva and the sclera, the best way to expose these structures is to
have the patient look upward and depress both lower lids with your thumbs. Covering one eye
while visualizing the other eyes checks for visual acuity. Observing for excessive tearing or
dryness assesses the lacrimal apparatus. Checking the position of the lids may identify variations
and abnormalities in the eyelids.
16. The groove of the metacarpophalangeal joint can be palpated by having the patient:
flex his hand
Explanation:
The groove of the metacarpophalangeal joints can be palpated by having the patient flex his
hand.
17. A patient complains of shooting pains below the knee radiating into the lateral leg and
calf. This type of low back pain is referred to as:
radicular low back pain
Explanation:
Radicular low back pain, or sciatica, presents with shooting pains below the knee, into the lateral
leg or posterior calf. It may be accompanied by paresthesias and/or weakness in the affected leg.
Mechanical low back pain often arises from muscle and ligament injuries (~70%) or age-related
intervertebral disc or facet disease. Common symptoms include aching pain in the lumbosacral
area that radiates to the upper leg. Common risk factors include heavy lifting, poor conditioning,
and obesity. Lumbar spinal stenosis or "pseudoclaudication" refers to pain in the back or legs
with walking that improves with rest, lumbar flexion, or both.
18. When assessing a 3-month-old for developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH), which one
of the following symptoms would be suspicious of dysplasia?
Limitation of abduction of the affected extremity, shortening of the femur and positive Ortolani's
sign
Explanation:
Developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH) presents with limitation of abduction, shortening of
the extremity, as the head of the femur does not fit into the acetabulum, and a positive Ortolani's
(it clicks when maneuvered). DDH presents with asymmetry of the gluteal folds.
19. A patient presents with right upper quadrant and upper abdominal pain. Acute
cholecystitis is suspected because the pain radiates to the:
about:blank 3/71 about:blank 4/71
,2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers
right scapula area
Explanation:
Acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant and upper abdominal pain radiating to the
right scapular area. It is usually steady and aching. Pain in the epigastric area could be associated
with peptic ulcer or dyspepsia. Cancer of the stomach can present with epigastric pain. Acute
mechanical colon obstruction presents with pain in the lower abdomen.
20. The preauricular lymph node is located:
in front of the ear
Explanation:
The preauricular lymph nodes are located in front of the ear. The tonsillar lymph nodes are at the
angle of the mandible. The occipital lymph nodes are located at the base of the skull posteriorly.
The posterior auricular nodes are superficial to the mastoid process.
21. Cessation of the menses for 12 months is termed:
menopause
Explanation:
Menopause is defined as cessation of menses for 12 months, progressing through several stages
of erratic cyclical bleeding. Oligomenorrhea is infrequent bleeding with menses occurring
greater than 35-day intervals, or 4-9 menstrual cycles per year. Menorrhagia refers to excessive
or prolonged menstrual flow occurring at regular intervals. Metrorrhagia refers to intermenstrual
bleeding.
22. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are located by palpating the:
posterior surface of the lower leg
Explanation:
The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are located by palpating the posterior surface of the lower
leg.
23. One cause of nasal septum perforation may be:
intranasal use of cocaine
Explanation:
Perforation of the nasal septum could be caused by trauma, surgery, and intranasal use of cocaine
or amphetamines. Nasal polyps obstruct air flow but there is no relationship to nasal septum
perforation. Cystic fibrosis or chronic sinusitis are not associated with nasal perforation.
24. Tenderness in the costovertebral angles may signify:
about:blank 5/71 about:blank 6/71
, 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers
buccal mucosa opposite the second molar of pre-eclampsia. Both conditions usually occur during the later stages of pregnancy, or
Explanation: sometimes after childbirth. Its characteristics: H (hemolysis), EL (elevated liver enzymes) and
The largest salivary gland is the parotid gland and it lies within the cheeks in front of the ear LP (low platelet count).
extending from the zygomatic arch down to the angle of the jaw. Its duct, Stensen's duct, runs
34. Flexion contracture of the knee suggests hamstring tightness or:
forward to an opening on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar. If blood comes out
through Stensen's duct when it is palpated, this could suggest parotid cancer. If pus is expelled, it limb paralysis
suggests suppurative parotitis. With mumps, the orifice of the Stensen duct appears erythematous Explanation:
and enlarged. The submandibular gland is the size of a walnut. It lies beneath the mandible at the Flexion contracture (inability to extend fully) is seen in hamstring tightness or limb paralysis.
angle of the jaw. Wharton's duct runs up and forward to the floor of the mouth and opens at Swelling over the patella suggests prepatellar bursitis. Stumbling or "giving way" of the knee
either side of the frenulum. The smallest, the almond-shaped sublingual gland, lies within the during the heel strike phase of gait suggests quadriceps weakness or abnormal patellar tracking.
floor of the mouth under the tongue. It has many small openings along the sublingual fold under
35. A protrusion of the membranes that cover the spine and the spinal cord itself, through a
the tongue.
defect in the bony encasement of the vertebral column is known as:
30. Hyperalgesia refers to:
a meningomyelocele
increased sensitivity to pain Explanation:
Explanation: A meningomyelocele is defined as the protrusion of the membranes that cover the spine and the
Analgesia refers to absence of pain sensation; hypalgesia to decreased sensitivity to pain; spinal cord itself, through a defect in the bony encasement of the vertebral column. A
hyperalgesia to increased sensitivity; and anesthesia to absence of touch sensation. developmental congenital disorder caused by the incomplete closing of the embryonic neural
tube is known as spina bifida. A protrusion of the spinal cord through a defect in the vertebral
31. The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the:
arch is referred to as a myelocele. An omphalocele is a type of abdominal wall defect in which
hypothalamus the intestines, liver, and occasionally other organs remain outside of the abdomen in a sac.
Explanation:
36. Static stabilizers of the shoulder are referred to as those structures that are:
The hypothalamus maintains homeostasis and regulates temperature, heart rate, and blood
pressure. The hypothalamus affects the endocrine system and governs emotional behaviors such bony structures of the shoulder girdle
as anger and sexual drive. Hormones secreted in the hypothalamus act directly on the pituitary Explanation:
gland. Static stabilizers are incapable of movement and include the bony structures of the shoulder
girdle, the labrum, the articular capsule, and the glenohumeral ligaments that add to joint
32. A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals
stability. Dynamic stabilizers are capable of movement and include the SITS muscles of the
two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse
rotator cuff (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis). These muscles move
practitioner should take is:
the humerus and compress and stabilize the humeral head within the glenoid cavity.
obtain cognitive and functional assessment
37. With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the dorsal
Explanation:
surface of the glans. This finding is consistent with:
High-risk older adults, namely those with a single fall in the past 12 months with abnormal gait
and balance and those with two or more falls in the prior 12 months, an acute fall, and/or epispadias
difficulties with gait and balance, require further assessment to determine the reasons for the Explanation:
falls. Obtaining relevant medical history, physical exam, cognitive and functional assessment and With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the dorsal surface of the
determining multifactorial fall risks are essential to the preventing future falls. glans. This finding is consistent with epispadias. A chordee refers to the fixed downward bowing
of the penis. With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the ventral
33. Which one of the following symptoms would be seen in a 39 week gestational age patient
surface of the glans. This finding is consistent with hypospadias. Cryptorchidism is a term used
who was suspected of having HELLP syndrome?
to describe undescended testicles in a male.
Vomiting, flu - like symptoms, and platelet count < 100,000
38. The nurse practitioner should base a response to a parent's question about the prognosis
Explanation:
of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) on which of the following statement:
HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening pregnancy complication usually considered to be a variant
about:blank 7/71 about:blank 8/71
1. During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or 6. An enlarged liver with a smooth tender edge may suggest:
respiratory distress raises concerns of:
right-sided heart failure.
peripartum cardiomyopathy
Explanation:
Explanation: An enlarged liver with a smooth, tender edge suggests inflammation, as in hepatitis, or venous
Dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises congestion, as in right-sided heart failure. Cirrhosis, hematochromatosis (increased amount of
concerns of possible infection, asthma, pulmonary embolus, or peripartum cardiomyopathy. iron in the blood), and lymphoma produce an enlarged liver with a firm, nontender edge. An
enlarged liver that is firm or hard and has an irregular edge or surface suggests hepatocellular
2. The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and
carcinoma.
great vessels is the:
7. New onset hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage is:
mediastinum
Explanation: preeclampsia
The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great Explanation:
vessels is the mediastinum. The right and left pleural cavities, are on either side of the Chronic hypertension occurs when systolic BP (SBP) >140 mm Hg or diastolic BP (DBP) >90
mediastinum and those contain the lungs. The visceral pleura encloses the lung. The pericardium mm Hg documented prior to pregnancy, before 20 weeks, or beyond 12 weeks postpartum.
surrounds the heart. Gestational hypertension refers to elevated blood pressure detected after 20 weeks gestation in
the absence of proteinuria. Pre-eclampsia occurs in a woman who was previously normotensive
3. A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an
but now has new onset hypertension with either proteinuria or end-organ damage. Primary
abnormality in cranial nerves: hypertension, formerly known as essential hypertension, is a disorder which is associated with
CN I elevated blood pressure and an unidentifiable cause.
Explanation:
8. The psoas muscle group and muscles of the abdominal wall assist with:
Cranial Nerve I is the olfactory nerve responsible for the sense of smell. To test the sense of
smell, the examiner presents the patient with familiar and nonirritating odors. A person should flexion
normally perceive odor on each side and correctly identify the source. Cranial Nerves II and III Explanation:
assess vision and pupillary reaction. Cranial Nerve VIII tests the hearing and balance. The psoas muscle group and muscles of the abdominal wall assist with flexion. The deep
intrinsic muscles of the back assist with extension. The abdominal muscles and intrinsic muscles
4. A transient ischemic attack is:
of the back assist with rotation. Lateral bending uses the abdominal muscles and intrinsic
a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, muscles of the back.
without acute infarction
9. "Preterm small for gestational age" (SGA) infants are prone to:
Explanation:
TIA is now defined as “a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, hypocalcemia
spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction.” Ischemic stroke is “an infarction of Explanation:
central nervous system tissue” that may be symptomatic or silent. The other terms are not related "Preterm appropriate for gestational age" (AGA) infants are prone to respiratory distress
to the new definitions. syndrome, apnea, patent ductus arteriosus with left-to-right shunt, and infection. "Preterm small
for gestational age" (SGA) infants are more likely to experience asphyxia, hypoglycemia, and
5. The term asteatosis refers to:
hypocalcemia.
skin that is dry, flaky, rough, and often itchy
Explanation:
Physiologic changes of aging include loss of elastic turgor, and wrinkling. Skin that appears dry,
flaky, rough, and itchy is termed asteatosis. Sun exposure can cause damage to the skin 10. Swelling noted 1-2 inches below the knee joint and on the medial surface of the knee
resembling an appearance as weather beaten, thickened, yellowed, and deeply furrowed. would be suggestive of:
Seborrheic keratosis appear as raised, yellowish lesions that feel greasy, velvety, or warty.
Painful vesicular lesions in a dermatomal distribution may suggest herpes zoster.
about:blank 1/71 about:blank 2/71
,2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers
be present on the calcaneus as bony projections and may cause numbness, tenderness, or pain.
Localized tenderness on examination of the ankle joint could be suggestive of arthritis, infection
of the ankle, or ligamentous injury. Tenderness along the posterior medial malleolus suggests
posterior tibial tendinitis.
15. When examining the conjunctiva and sclera, have the patient look upward and then:
depress both lower lids with your thumbs, exposing the sclera and conjunctiva
Explanation:
When examining the conjunctiva and the sclera, the best way to expose these structures is to
have the patient look upward and depress both lower lids with your thumbs. Covering one eye
while visualizing the other eyes checks for visual acuity. Observing for excessive tearing or
dryness assesses the lacrimal apparatus. Checking the position of the lids may identify variations
and abnormalities in the eyelids.
16. The groove of the metacarpophalangeal joint can be palpated by having the patient:
flex his hand
Explanation:
The groove of the metacarpophalangeal joints can be palpated by having the patient flex his
hand.
17. A patient complains of shooting pains below the knee radiating into the lateral leg and
calf. This type of low back pain is referred to as:
radicular low back pain
Explanation:
Radicular low back pain, or sciatica, presents with shooting pains below the knee, into the lateral
leg or posterior calf. It may be accompanied by paresthesias and/or weakness in the affected leg.
Mechanical low back pain often arises from muscle and ligament injuries (~70%) or age-related
intervertebral disc or facet disease. Common symptoms include aching pain in the lumbosacral
area that radiates to the upper leg. Common risk factors include heavy lifting, poor conditioning,
and obesity. Lumbar spinal stenosis or "pseudoclaudication" refers to pain in the back or legs
with walking that improves with rest, lumbar flexion, or both.
18. When assessing a 3-month-old for developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH), which one
of the following symptoms would be suspicious of dysplasia?
Limitation of abduction of the affected extremity, shortening of the femur and positive Ortolani's
sign
Explanation:
Developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH) presents with limitation of abduction, shortening of
the extremity, as the head of the femur does not fit into the acetabulum, and a positive Ortolani's
(it clicks when maneuvered). DDH presents with asymmetry of the gluteal folds.
19. A patient presents with right upper quadrant and upper abdominal pain. Acute
cholecystitis is suspected because the pain radiates to the:
about:blank 3/71 about:blank 4/71
,2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers
right scapula area
Explanation:
Acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant and upper abdominal pain radiating to the
right scapular area. It is usually steady and aching. Pain in the epigastric area could be associated
with peptic ulcer or dyspepsia. Cancer of the stomach can present with epigastric pain. Acute
mechanical colon obstruction presents with pain in the lower abdomen.
20. The preauricular lymph node is located:
in front of the ear
Explanation:
The preauricular lymph nodes are located in front of the ear. The tonsillar lymph nodes are at the
angle of the mandible. The occipital lymph nodes are located at the base of the skull posteriorly.
The posterior auricular nodes are superficial to the mastoid process.
21. Cessation of the menses for 12 months is termed:
menopause
Explanation:
Menopause is defined as cessation of menses for 12 months, progressing through several stages
of erratic cyclical bleeding. Oligomenorrhea is infrequent bleeding with menses occurring
greater than 35-day intervals, or 4-9 menstrual cycles per year. Menorrhagia refers to excessive
or prolonged menstrual flow occurring at regular intervals. Metrorrhagia refers to intermenstrual
bleeding.
22. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are located by palpating the:
posterior surface of the lower leg
Explanation:
The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are located by palpating the posterior surface of the lower
leg.
23. One cause of nasal septum perforation may be:
intranasal use of cocaine
Explanation:
Perforation of the nasal septum could be caused by trauma, surgery, and intranasal use of cocaine
or amphetamines. Nasal polyps obstruct air flow but there is no relationship to nasal septum
perforation. Cystic fibrosis or chronic sinusitis are not associated with nasal perforation.
24. Tenderness in the costovertebral angles may signify:
about:blank 5/71 about:blank 6/71
, 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers 2/27/24, 10:11 PM NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam Study Guide Questions-Answers
buccal mucosa opposite the second molar of pre-eclampsia. Both conditions usually occur during the later stages of pregnancy, or
Explanation: sometimes after childbirth. Its characteristics: H (hemolysis), EL (elevated liver enzymes) and
The largest salivary gland is the parotid gland and it lies within the cheeks in front of the ear LP (low platelet count).
extending from the zygomatic arch down to the angle of the jaw. Its duct, Stensen's duct, runs
34. Flexion contracture of the knee suggests hamstring tightness or:
forward to an opening on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molar. If blood comes out
through Stensen's duct when it is palpated, this could suggest parotid cancer. If pus is expelled, it limb paralysis
suggests suppurative parotitis. With mumps, the orifice of the Stensen duct appears erythematous Explanation:
and enlarged. The submandibular gland is the size of a walnut. It lies beneath the mandible at the Flexion contracture (inability to extend fully) is seen in hamstring tightness or limb paralysis.
angle of the jaw. Wharton's duct runs up and forward to the floor of the mouth and opens at Swelling over the patella suggests prepatellar bursitis. Stumbling or "giving way" of the knee
either side of the frenulum. The smallest, the almond-shaped sublingual gland, lies within the during the heel strike phase of gait suggests quadriceps weakness or abnormal patellar tracking.
floor of the mouth under the tongue. It has many small openings along the sublingual fold under
35. A protrusion of the membranes that cover the spine and the spinal cord itself, through a
the tongue.
defect in the bony encasement of the vertebral column is known as:
30. Hyperalgesia refers to:
a meningomyelocele
increased sensitivity to pain Explanation:
Explanation: A meningomyelocele is defined as the protrusion of the membranes that cover the spine and the
Analgesia refers to absence of pain sensation; hypalgesia to decreased sensitivity to pain; spinal cord itself, through a defect in the bony encasement of the vertebral column. A
hyperalgesia to increased sensitivity; and anesthesia to absence of touch sensation. developmental congenital disorder caused by the incomplete closing of the embryonic neural
tube is known as spina bifida. A protrusion of the spinal cord through a defect in the vertebral
31. The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the:
arch is referred to as a myelocele. An omphalocele is a type of abdominal wall defect in which
hypothalamus the intestines, liver, and occasionally other organs remain outside of the abdomen in a sac.
Explanation:
36. Static stabilizers of the shoulder are referred to as those structures that are:
The hypothalamus maintains homeostasis and regulates temperature, heart rate, and blood
pressure. The hypothalamus affects the endocrine system and governs emotional behaviors such bony structures of the shoulder girdle
as anger and sexual drive. Hormones secreted in the hypothalamus act directly on the pituitary Explanation:
gland. Static stabilizers are incapable of movement and include the bony structures of the shoulder
girdle, the labrum, the articular capsule, and the glenohumeral ligaments that add to joint
32. A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals
stability. Dynamic stabilizers are capable of movement and include the SITS muscles of the
two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse
rotator cuff (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis). These muscles move
practitioner should take is:
the humerus and compress and stabilize the humeral head within the glenoid cavity.
obtain cognitive and functional assessment
37. With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the dorsal
Explanation:
surface of the glans. This finding is consistent with:
High-risk older adults, namely those with a single fall in the past 12 months with abnormal gait
and balance and those with two or more falls in the prior 12 months, an acute fall, and/or epispadias
difficulties with gait and balance, require further assessment to determine the reasons for the Explanation:
falls. Obtaining relevant medical history, physical exam, cognitive and functional assessment and With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the dorsal surface of the
determining multifactorial fall risks are essential to the preventing future falls. glans. This finding is consistent with epispadias. A chordee refers to the fixed downward bowing
of the penis. With inspection of the male infant's penis, the urethral orifice appears on the ventral
33. Which one of the following symptoms would be seen in a 39 week gestational age patient
surface of the glans. This finding is consistent with hypospadias. Cryptorchidism is a term used
who was suspected of having HELLP syndrome?
to describe undescended testicles in a male.
Vomiting, flu - like symptoms, and platelet count < 100,000
38. The nurse practitioner should base a response to a parent's question about the prognosis
Explanation:
of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) on which of the following statement:
HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening pregnancy complication usually considered to be a variant
about:blank 7/71 about:blank 8/71
