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Exam (elaborations)

PMED CH 46 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALL CORRECT

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PMED CH 46 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALL CORRECT When checking the ambulance engine, you note the odor of sewer gas. What should you do? A) Thoroughly clean the battery terminals and cables. B) Open the coolant cap and check the coolant level. C) Close the hood and take the ambulance out of service. D) Start the ambulance and check the voltage on the battery. - Answer-C Which of the following statements regarding belt noise is correct? A) Belt noise is a low-pitched drone that is synchronous with road speed. B) The noise made from an engine belt is usually harmless and corrects itself. C) Belt noise is a squealing sound related to a load on one of the belt-operated appliances. D) Belt noise is a sign that the engine's alternator or water pump is malfunctioning. - Answer-C An ambulance should be removed from service immediately if you feel or hear: A) belt noise. B) brake fade. C) tire squeal. D) a slight drift. - Answer-B High-performance EMS systems typically use a fractile response time standard, in which: A) a significant fraction of all responses must be achieved within an established time. B) the ambulance must arrive at the scene within 8 minutes in 50% of all dispatches. C) turnaround time for the entire call should be no more than 1 hour in 90% of all calls. D) medics must be in the ambulance and en route within 2 minutes of being dispatched. - Answer-A When determining productivity of an EMS system, the EMS provider: A) calculates the ratio of EMS calls to the number of operating ambulances. B) determines the number of paramedics on duty versus the number of EMS calls. C) calculates the number of critical patients per month and how many survived. D) measures how many patient transports per hour each ambulance accomplishes. - Answer-D A third-service EMS system is one in which: A) a public agency not affiliated with the fire department provides EMS service. B) an EMS ambulance is housed in a fire department and is staffed by EMTs. C) responders from a fire department assist the ambulance on every EMS call. D) a privately owned ambulance service works in tandem with a public EMS system. - Answer-A In a tiered-response EMS system: A) every ALS ambulance that responds has at least three paramedics on board. B) an ambulance with two paramedics makes the initial response to every EMS call. C) an EMS system attempts to assign ALS ambulances only where they are needed. D) a first response vehicle, BLS ambulance, and ALS ambulance respond to every call. - Answer-C The goal of system status management is to: A) allow paramedics ample time to rest before going on another call. B) minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically. C) ensure that every ambulance is staffed with at least one paramedic. D) post at least three ambulances in an area where most EMS calls occur. - Answer-B Upon arriving at a motor-vehicle crash, the paramedic should look for safety hazards and then: A) direct traffic away from the crash scene. B) evaluate the need for additional resources. C) begin treating the most critically injured. D) establish a centralized treatment location. - Answer-B With respect to emergency driving, due regard means that: A) an ambulance must never exceed the posted speed limit, even if it is responding to a call for a critical patient. B) the emergency vehicle operator can legally exceed the posted speed limit by 20 miles per hour, but only if it is safe to do so. C) an ambulance must use its lights and siren and remain at least 100 feet behind a vehicle that is failing to yield. D) the use of lights and siren does not exempt you from operating the ambulance with concern for the safety of others. - Answer-D Which of the following statements regarding the use of emergency escorts is correct? A) Many drivers will only see the first emergency vehicle and assume that it is clear once that vehicle has passed. B) If you are using an emergency escort, you should follow closely behind it to avoid a wake effect collision. C) Use of a police escort is an acceptable practice, because it often facilitates a faster response time to the scene. D) The use of emergency escorts is generally discouraged, unless you are traveling through a busy intersection. - Answer-A The decision to use lights and siren when transporting a patient to the hospital is MOST dependent upon: A) your EMS system's protocols. B) the number of vehicles on the road. C) judgment on the part of the paramedic. D) the opinion of the receiving physician. - Answer-C When you are dispatched to an emergency, it is MOST important to: A) take a route that will ensure a fast response time. B) use GPS to ensure accurate navigation to the scene. C) use your lights and siren to warn other motorists. D) determine which route will be used to arrive safely. - Answer-D When parking the ambulance off the side of the highway in dry weather: A) the entire ambulance should be positioned off of the gravel. B) the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire. C) you should place safety cones at all four points of the vehicle. D) it is generally considered safe to turn off your warning lights. - Answer-B

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February 8, 2025
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2024/2025
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PMED CH 46 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS ALL CORRECT

When checking the ambulance engine, you note the odor of sewer gas. What should
you do?
A) Thoroughly clean the battery terminals and cables.
B) Open the coolant cap and check the coolant level.
C) Close the hood and take the ambulance out of service.
D) Start the ambulance and check the voltage on the battery. - Answer-C

Which of the following statements regarding belt noise is correct?
A) Belt noise is a low-pitched drone that is synchronous with road speed.
B) The noise made from an engine belt is usually harmless and corrects itself.
C) Belt noise is a squealing sound related to a load on one of the belt-operated
appliances.
D) Belt noise is a sign that the engine's alternator or water pump is malfunctioning. -
Answer-C

An ambulance should be removed from service immediately if you feel or hear:
A) belt noise.
B) brake fade.
C) tire squeal.
D) a slight drift. - Answer-B

High-performance EMS systems typically use a fractile response time standard, in
which:
A) a significant fraction of all responses must be achieved within an established time.
B) the ambulance must arrive at the scene within 8 minutes in 50% of all dispatches.
C) turnaround time for the entire call should be no more than 1 hour in 90% of all calls.
D) medics must be in the ambulance and en route within 2 minutes of being dispatched.
- Answer-A

When determining productivity of an EMS system, the EMS provider:
A) calculates the ratio of EMS calls to the number of operating ambulances.
B) determines the number of paramedics on duty versus the number of EMS calls.
C) calculates the number of critical patients per month and how many survived.
D) measures how many patient transports per hour each ambulance accomplishes. -
Answer-D

, A third-service EMS system is one in which:
A) a public agency not affiliated with the fire department provides EMS service.
B) an EMS ambulance is housed in a fire department and is staffed by EMTs.
C) responders from a fire department assist the ambulance on every EMS call.
D) a privately owned ambulance service works in tandem with a public EMS system. -
Answer-A

In a tiered-response EMS system:
A) every ALS ambulance that responds has at least three paramedics on board.
B) an ambulance with two paramedics makes the initial response to every EMS call.
C) an EMS system attempts to assign ALS ambulances only where they are needed.
D) a first response vehicle, BLS ambulance, and ALS ambulance respond to every call.
- Answer-C

The goal of system status management is to:
A) allow paramedics ample time to rest before going on another call.
B) minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically.
C) ensure that every ambulance is staffed with at least one paramedic.
D) post at least three ambulances in an area where most EMS calls occur. - Answer-B

Upon arriving at a motor-vehicle crash, the paramedic should look for safety hazards
and then:
A) direct traffic away from the crash scene.
B) evaluate the need for additional resources.
C) begin treating the most critically injured.
D) establish a centralized treatment location. - Answer-B

With respect to emergency driving, due regard means that:
A) an ambulance must never exceed the posted speed limit, even if it is responding to a
call for a critical patient.
B) the emergency vehicle operator can legally exceed the posted speed limit by 20
miles per hour, but only if it is safe to do so.
C) an ambulance must use its lights and siren and remain at least 100 feet behind a
vehicle that is failing to yield.
D) the use of lights and siren does not exempt you from operating the ambulance with
concern for the safety of others. - Answer-D

Which of the following statements regarding the use of emergency escorts is correct?
A) Many drivers will only see the first emergency vehicle and assume that it is clear
once that vehicle has passed.
B) If you are using an emergency escort, you should follow closely behind it to avoid a
wake effect collision.
C) Use of a police escort is an acceptable practice, because it often facilitates a faster
response time to the scene.
D) The use of emergency escorts is generally discouraged, unless you are traveling
through a busy intersection. - Answer-A

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