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Exam (elaborations)

PRITE 2024 Part II: Exam Questions with Answers

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PRITE 2024 Part II: Exam Questions with Answers

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1. A 65-year-old male presents with gradual memory loss, difficulty
recognizing familiar faces, and word-finding difficulties. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Vascular dementia
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Lewy body dementia
D. Parkinson’s disease
Answer: b) Alzheimer's disease
Rationale: Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia in
older adults. It is characterized by progressive memory loss, language
difficulties, and disorientation.


2. Which of the following is the most effective treatment for acute
mania in bipolar disorder?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: b) Valproate

,Rationale: Valproate is considered one of the most effective medications
for managing acute mania in bipolar disorder. It is a mood stabilizer
and has a faster onset of action compared to lithium.


3. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a
patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who is experiencing auditory
hallucinations?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Antipsychotic medication
C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
D. Antidepressant medication
Answer: b) Antipsychotic medication
Rationale: Antipsychotic medications are the first-line treatment for
schizophrenia, particularly for managing symptoms such as auditory
hallucinations and delusions.


4. A 20-year-old male with schizophrenia is noncompliant with his
antipsychotic medication. He begins to exhibit a high fever, muscle
rigidity, and autonomic instability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tardive dyskinesia
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Sepsis
Answer: b) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

,Rationale: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening
condition that occurs after antipsychotic use, characterized by fever,
rigidity, and autonomic dysregulation.


5. A 32-year-old male is diagnosed with schizophrenia and has been
prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side
effects is more common with first-generation antipsychotics?
A. Weight gain
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms
C. Sexual dysfunction
D. Metabolic syndrome
Answer: b) Extrapyramidal symptoms
Rationale: First-generation antipsychotics are more commonly
associated with extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including tremors,
rigidity, and bradykinesia. These symptoms result from the blockade of
dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia.


6. A 29-year-old woman presents with increased energy, excessive
talking, and impulsive spending. She is diagnosed with bipolar disorder.
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for
acute mania in bipolar disorder?
A. Lithium
B. Risperidone
C. Valproate

, D. Lamotrigine
Answer: c) Valproate
Rationale: Valproate is considered one of the most effective medications
for treating acute mania in bipolar disorder. It is a mood stabilizer with
a relatively rapid onset of action.


7. A 40-year-old female presents with chronic, diffuse pain, fatigue, and
difficulty sleeping. She reports a history of stress-related events. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fibromyalgia
B. Chronic fatigue syndrome
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Somatic symptom disorder
Answer: a) Fibromyalgia
Rationale: Fibromyalgia is characterized by chronic, widespread
musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. It is often
triggered by physical or emotional stress.


8. A 55-year-old woman presents with a history of frequent mood
swings, irritability, and difficulty maintaining relationships. She reports
periods of intense, impulsive behavior, followed by feelings of
emptiness. Which diagnosis is most consistent with this presentation?
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Bipolar disorder

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