MATERNITY NURSING NCLEX EXAM 1 LATEST
2024/2025 WITH 75 Q&A’S WITH RATIONALES
GUARANTEED PASS | RATED A+
I Wish You the Best in Your Studies and Exam Revision.
,MATERNITY NURSING NCLEX EXAM 1 LATEST 2024/2025 WITH 75 Q&A’S WITH
RATIONALES
1. Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. The
client states that she is in labor and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care. Which
question should the nurse ask her first?
A. “Do you have any chronic illness?”
B. “Do you have any allergies?”
C. “What is your expected due date?”
D. “Who will be with you during labor?”
Correct Answer: C. “What is your expected due date?”
When obtaining the history of a patient who may be in labor, the nurse’s highest priority is to
determine her current status, particularly her due date, gravidity, and parity. Gravidity and parity
affect the duration of labor and the potential for labor complications. Later, the nurse should ask
about chronic illness, allergies, and support persons.
Option A: After asking for the expected due date, obtain the client’s problems
during this or previous pregnancies.
Option B: Asking about any known allergies may be done after inquiring about
prior ultrasonographic examinations and results, and bleeding during pregnancy
or labor.
Option D: This may be asked if the client’s health history and present health
history, which are some of the most important details, are already obtained.
2. A woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation is having a nonstress test. Which statement
indicates her correct understanding of the test?
A. "I will need to have a full bladder for the test to be done accurately."
B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test because I may be
nauseated."
C. "This test will help to determine whether the baby has Down syndrome or
, a neural tube defect."
D. "This test observes for fetal activity and an acceleration of the fetal
heart rate to determine the well-being of the baby."
Correct Answer: D. “This test observes for fetal activity and an acceleration of the fetal
heart rate to determine the well-being of the baby.”
The nonstress test is one of the most widely used techniques to determine fetal well-being and is
accomplished by monitoring fetal heart rate in conjunction with fetal activity and movements.
Option A: An ultrasound requires a full bladder. A full bladder creates a reservoir
fluid that enhances the movement of sound waves through the abdominal cavity.
This creates a clearer view of the structures that need to be observed.
Option B: An amniocentesis is a test after which a pregnant woman should be
driven home.
Option C: A maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is used in conjunction with
unconjugated estriol levels and human chorionic gonadotropin helps to detect
Down syndrome.
3. After administering bethanechol to a patient with urine retention, the nurse in charge
monitors the patient for adverse effects. Which is most likely to occur?
A. Decreased peristalsis
B. Increase heart rate
C. Dry mucous membranes
D. Nausea and Vomiting
Correct Answer: D. Nausea and Vomiting
Bethanechol will increase GI motility, which may cause nausea, belching, vomiting, intestinal
cramps, and diarrhea. Bethanechol directly stimulates cholinergic receptors in the
parasympathetic nervous system while stimulating the ganglia to a lesser extent.
Option A: Peristalsis is increased rather than decreased. Stimulation of
muscarinic receptors in the GI tract restores peristalsis, increases motility, and
increases the resting lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
, Option B: With high doses of bethanechol, cardiovascular responses may include
vasodilation, decreased cardiac rate, and decreased the force of cardiac
contraction, which may cause hypotension.
Option C: Salivation or sweating may gently increase because of its cholinergic
effects.
4. When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands
that this drug is given to:
A. Prevent seizures.
B. Reduce blood pressure.
C. Slow the process of labor.
D. Increase diuresis.
Correct Answer: A. Prevent seizures
The chemical makeup of magnesium is similar to that of calcium and, therefore, magnesium will
act like calcium in the body. As a result, magnesium will block seizure activity in a hyper-
stimulated neurologic system by interfering with signal transmission at the neuromuscular
junction.
Option B: Magnesium sulfate may attenuate blood pressure by decreasing the
vascular response to pressor substances.
Option C: Since the primary therapeutic goal of tocolysis is to delay preterm
delivery within 48 hours from the initiation of steroid prophylaxis, little evidence
suggests that extended MgSO4 therapy is beneficial.
Option D: There are rare cases of pregnant women who develop polyuria after
receiving intravenous therapy of magnesium sulfate. It can be considered as
another cause of solute diuresis.
5. What is an appropriate indicator for performing a contraction stress test?
A. Increased fetal movement and small for gestational age.
B. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity.
2024/2025 WITH 75 Q&A’S WITH RATIONALES
GUARANTEED PASS | RATED A+
I Wish You the Best in Your Studies and Exam Revision.
,MATERNITY NURSING NCLEX EXAM 1 LATEST 2024/2025 WITH 75 Q&A’S WITH
RATIONALES
1. Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. The
client states that she is in labor and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care. Which
question should the nurse ask her first?
A. “Do you have any chronic illness?”
B. “Do you have any allergies?”
C. “What is your expected due date?”
D. “Who will be with you during labor?”
Correct Answer: C. “What is your expected due date?”
When obtaining the history of a patient who may be in labor, the nurse’s highest priority is to
determine her current status, particularly her due date, gravidity, and parity. Gravidity and parity
affect the duration of labor and the potential for labor complications. Later, the nurse should ask
about chronic illness, allergies, and support persons.
Option A: After asking for the expected due date, obtain the client’s problems
during this or previous pregnancies.
Option B: Asking about any known allergies may be done after inquiring about
prior ultrasonographic examinations and results, and bleeding during pregnancy
or labor.
Option D: This may be asked if the client’s health history and present health
history, which are some of the most important details, are already obtained.
2. A woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation is having a nonstress test. Which statement
indicates her correct understanding of the test?
A. "I will need to have a full bladder for the test to be done accurately."
B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test because I may be
nauseated."
C. "This test will help to determine whether the baby has Down syndrome or
, a neural tube defect."
D. "This test observes for fetal activity and an acceleration of the fetal
heart rate to determine the well-being of the baby."
Correct Answer: D. “This test observes for fetal activity and an acceleration of the fetal
heart rate to determine the well-being of the baby.”
The nonstress test is one of the most widely used techniques to determine fetal well-being and is
accomplished by monitoring fetal heart rate in conjunction with fetal activity and movements.
Option A: An ultrasound requires a full bladder. A full bladder creates a reservoir
fluid that enhances the movement of sound waves through the abdominal cavity.
This creates a clearer view of the structures that need to be observed.
Option B: An amniocentesis is a test after which a pregnant woman should be
driven home.
Option C: A maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is used in conjunction with
unconjugated estriol levels and human chorionic gonadotropin helps to detect
Down syndrome.
3. After administering bethanechol to a patient with urine retention, the nurse in charge
monitors the patient for adverse effects. Which is most likely to occur?
A. Decreased peristalsis
B. Increase heart rate
C. Dry mucous membranes
D. Nausea and Vomiting
Correct Answer: D. Nausea and Vomiting
Bethanechol will increase GI motility, which may cause nausea, belching, vomiting, intestinal
cramps, and diarrhea. Bethanechol directly stimulates cholinergic receptors in the
parasympathetic nervous system while stimulating the ganglia to a lesser extent.
Option A: Peristalsis is increased rather than decreased. Stimulation of
muscarinic receptors in the GI tract restores peristalsis, increases motility, and
increases the resting lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
, Option B: With high doses of bethanechol, cardiovascular responses may include
vasodilation, decreased cardiac rate, and decreased the force of cardiac
contraction, which may cause hypotension.
Option C: Salivation or sweating may gently increase because of its cholinergic
effects.
4. When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands
that this drug is given to:
A. Prevent seizures.
B. Reduce blood pressure.
C. Slow the process of labor.
D. Increase diuresis.
Correct Answer: A. Prevent seizures
The chemical makeup of magnesium is similar to that of calcium and, therefore, magnesium will
act like calcium in the body. As a result, magnesium will block seizure activity in a hyper-
stimulated neurologic system by interfering with signal transmission at the neuromuscular
junction.
Option B: Magnesium sulfate may attenuate blood pressure by decreasing the
vascular response to pressor substances.
Option C: Since the primary therapeutic goal of tocolysis is to delay preterm
delivery within 48 hours from the initiation of steroid prophylaxis, little evidence
suggests that extended MgSO4 therapy is beneficial.
Option D: There are rare cases of pregnant women who develop polyuria after
receiving intravenous therapy of magnesium sulfate. It can be considered as
another cause of solute diuresis.
5. What is an appropriate indicator for performing a contraction stress test?
A. Increased fetal movement and small for gestational age.
B. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity.
