Question 1:
Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension by inhibiting
the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II?
A) Lisinopril
B) Losartan
C) Amlodipine
D) Furosemide
Answer: A) Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor)
that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which helps to reduce
blood pressure. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), while
amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and furosemide is a diuretic.
Question 2:
A nurse is administering a medication that is known to be an alpha-1 blocker.
Which of the following is a common side effect of this class of drugs?
A) Tachycardia
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Diarrhea
Answer: B) Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Alpha-1 blockers cause vasodilation, which can lead to a sudden drop
in blood pressure when standing, known as orthostatic hypotension. This is a
common side effect of alpha-1 blockers like prazosin.
Question 3:
A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for gastroesophageal reflux
disease (GERD). What is the primary action of PPIs?
,A) Increase the secretion of gastric acid
B) Neutralize gastric acid
C) Block histamine receptors in the stomach
D) Inhibit the proton pump in the stomach lining
Answer: D) Inhibit the proton pump in the stomach lining
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), like omeprazole, inhibit the proton
pump in the stomach lining, which reduces the production of gastric acid. This is
useful in treating GERD and ulcers.
Question 4:
A nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a patient. Which laboratory test
should be monitored regularly to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy?
A) Platelet count
B) Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Serum creatinine
Answer: B) Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin affects the clotting cascade, so its effectiveness is monitored
by measuring PT and INR. A higher INR indicates a longer clotting time, reflecting
the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Question 5:
A patient taking a diuretic medication is experiencing muscle cramps and
weakness. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely causing
these symptoms?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyponatremia
, Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Diuretics, particularly thiazide diuretics, can cause the body to lose
potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia include muscle
cramps, weakness, and arrhythmias.
Question 6:
Which of the following medications is considered a first-line treatment for type 2
diabetes?
A) Insulin
B) Metformin
C) Glipizide
D) Lisinopril
Answer: B) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin is typically the first-line medication for type 2 diabetes as it
improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose production. Insulin is
used for type 1 diabetes or in severe cases of type 2 diabetes, while glipizide is a
sulfonylurea and lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, not a diabetic medication.
Question 7:
A client is receiving morphine for pain management. What is the priority nursing
action before administering the morphine?
A) Assessing for constipation
B) Monitoring the respiratory rate
C) Checking for allergic reactions
D) Measuring blood pressure
Answer: B) Monitoring the respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression.
The nurse should assess the client's respiratory rate before administration to
ensure it is within a safe range (typically 12–20 breaths per minute).
Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension by inhibiting
the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II?
A) Lisinopril
B) Losartan
C) Amlodipine
D) Furosemide
Answer: A) Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor)
that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which helps to reduce
blood pressure. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), while
amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and furosemide is a diuretic.
Question 2:
A nurse is administering a medication that is known to be an alpha-1 blocker.
Which of the following is a common side effect of this class of drugs?
A) Tachycardia
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Diarrhea
Answer: B) Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Alpha-1 blockers cause vasodilation, which can lead to a sudden drop
in blood pressure when standing, known as orthostatic hypotension. This is a
common side effect of alpha-1 blockers like prazosin.
Question 3:
A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for gastroesophageal reflux
disease (GERD). What is the primary action of PPIs?
,A) Increase the secretion of gastric acid
B) Neutralize gastric acid
C) Block histamine receptors in the stomach
D) Inhibit the proton pump in the stomach lining
Answer: D) Inhibit the proton pump in the stomach lining
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), like omeprazole, inhibit the proton
pump in the stomach lining, which reduces the production of gastric acid. This is
useful in treating GERD and ulcers.
Question 4:
A nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a patient. Which laboratory test
should be monitored regularly to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy?
A) Platelet count
B) Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Serum creatinine
Answer: B) Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Warfarin affects the clotting cascade, so its effectiveness is monitored
by measuring PT and INR. A higher INR indicates a longer clotting time, reflecting
the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
Question 5:
A patient taking a diuretic medication is experiencing muscle cramps and
weakness. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely causing
these symptoms?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyponatremia
, Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Diuretics, particularly thiazide diuretics, can cause the body to lose
potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia include muscle
cramps, weakness, and arrhythmias.
Question 6:
Which of the following medications is considered a first-line treatment for type 2
diabetes?
A) Insulin
B) Metformin
C) Glipizide
D) Lisinopril
Answer: B) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin is typically the first-line medication for type 2 diabetes as it
improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose production. Insulin is
used for type 1 diabetes or in severe cases of type 2 diabetes, while glipizide is a
sulfonylurea and lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, not a diabetic medication.
Question 7:
A client is receiving morphine for pain management. What is the priority nursing
action before administering the morphine?
A) Assessing for constipation
B) Monitoring the respiratory rate
C) Checking for allergic reactions
D) Measuring blood pressure
Answer: B) Monitoring the respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression.
The nurse should assess the client's respiratory rate before administration to
ensure it is within a safe range (typically 12–20 breaths per minute).
