LATEST VESION UPDATED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALEADY GRADED A+

LATEST VESION UPDATED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALEADY GRADED A+ A youth who engages in violent behavior after playing violent video games and idolizing the characters in those games is an example of which type of behavior? - ANS modeling Serious violent victimizations occur more frequently during what season? - ANS summer The study of the psychodynamic (psychoanalytic) explanation of personality originated with which researcher? - ANS Sigmund Freud To be truly ethical, criminological research must have ________ to research participants rather, than simply doing them no harm. - ANS social value Which demographic of the population is least likely to be a crime victim? - ANS elderly Approximately what percentage of violent crimes are cleared by arrest each year? - ANS NOT 20% What is meant by the "cycle of violence"? - ANS Victims of crime, especially victims of childhood abuse, are more likely to commit crimes themselves. is the principle that crime can be prevented or displaced by modifying the physical environment to reduce the opportunity that individuals have to commit crime. - ANS defensible space is the view that disadvantaged economic class position is a primary cause of crime. - ANS Social structure theory A method of crime prevention that seeks to eliminate or reduce particular crimes in specific settings is known as - ANS situational crime prevention 1. What is the maximum allowable stroke for a type 30, clamp type brake chamber? A. 2" B. 1 3/4" C. 2 1/2" D. 8 3/32" - ANS A. 2" 2. While greasing a U-Joint cross, grease exits from only 3 of the four trunnion seals. what should you do first? A. Leave it, grease will circulate in the cross. B. Replace the U-joint assembly. C. Pound on the bearing cap with a large hammer. D. Loosen the journal cap over the affected trunnion and try again. - ANS D. Loosen the journal cap over the affected trunnion and try again. 3. Which of the following trailer chassis systems usually represents the highest maintenance costs? A. Doors B. Suspensions C. Tires D. Brakes - ANS C. Tires 4. On which of the following maintenance documents does the driver have input to? A. Schedule A report B. Schedule B report C. Technician inspection report D. Driver inspection report - ANS D. Driver inspection report 5. Which of the following gear lube classifications would be appropriate for use in the most current truck differential carriers? A. API GL-4 B. API GL-5 C. API GL-6 D. API GL-7 - ANS B. API GL-5 6. Which type of antifreeze mixture should never be diluted with water? A. Ethylene-glycol B. Propylene-glycol C. Extended Life Coolant D. It is acceptable to dilute any antifreeze with water - ANS C. Extended Life Coolant 7. What happens when Ethylene-glycol (EG) is mixed with water at a ratio exceeding 68:32? A. Freeze point increases B. Freeze point decreases C. Freeze point does not change D. It changes to gel - ANS A. Freeze point increases 8. When you test antifreeze with litmus paper, what are you measuring? A. Freeze point B. Nitrate protection level C. Contamination D. Acidity - ANS D. Acidity 9. Which of the following lubricants is recommended for cab door hinges? A. Chassis grease B. Engine oil C. Dry graphite D. Penetrating oil - ANS C. Dry graphite 10. If you see evidence of welding on a trailer pintle hook while inspecting a trailer, what should you do? A. OOS deadline the vehicle B. Grind the weld profile smooth C. Test the pintle hook with a hammer D. Despatch the vehicle - ANS A. OOS deadline the vehicle 11. Which theory of electrical current flow states that current flows from a negative location to a positive location in an electrical circuit? A. Kilowatt law B. Electron theory C. Conventional theory D. Ohm's law - ANS B. Electron theory 12. What type of signal is produced by an Inductive pulse generator? A. Saw-tooth B. Square-wave C. AC Sine Wave D. Rippled DC - ANS C. AC Sine Wave 13. Vehicle wiring schematics use which theory of current flow almost exclusively? A. Conventional theory B. Electron theory C. Gilbert theory D. Faraday theory - ANS A. Conventional theory 14. Which of these terms mean the same thing as Voltage? A. Charge differential B. Electromotive force C. Potential difference D. All of the above - ANS d. All of the above 15. Which of the following devices does NOT rely upon the principles of electromagnetism to function? A.Solenoid B. Headlight. C.Relay D.Ignition coil - ANS B. Headlight. 16. Which of the following circuits has only one path for current to flow? A. Parallel B. Series C. Series-parallel D. None of the above - ANS B. Series 17. Which type of circuit has multiple paths for current flow? A. Series B. Series-parallel C. Parallel D. Both B and C - ANS D. Both B and C 18. How many volts are required to push 3 amps through a resistance of 4 ohms? A. I volt B. 12 volts C. 7 volts D. 1 1/4 volts - ANS B. 12 volts 19. A commonly used sensor that induces an AC voltage by having a rotating reluctor cut through a permanent magnetic field is used for: A. wheel speed sensors B. transmission tailshaft speed sensors C. engine speed sensors D. all of the above - ANS D. all of the above 20. Calculate the electrical pressure required to flow 6 amps through a 2 ohm resistance A.. 3 volts B. .33 volts C. 6 volts D. 12 volts - ANS D. 12 volts 21. Which of the following best describes how a diode functions in an electrical circuit? A. current amplifier B. voltage amplifier C. relay switch D. one-way switch - ANS D. one-way switch 22. When a diode allows current to flow through it, what state is it in?A. forward bias B. reverse bias C. neutral bias D. none of the above - ANS A. forward bias 23. How many terminals are there on a diode? A. one B. two C. three D. four - ANS B. two 24. With which part of a computer processing cycle are sensors associated with? A. input B. processing C. output D. actuator - ANS A. input 25. When preparing to load test a lead-acid battery, the technician first checks the integral hydrometer and sees that it is dark. What should be done next? A. Fully charge the battery before attempting to test it B. Replace the battery, it has a low electrolyte level C. Proceed with the test, the battery is fully charged D. Remove the surface charge, then proceed to test the battery - ANS A. Fully charge the battery before attempting to test it 26. What electrolyte is used in a vehicle lead-acid battery? A. distilled water B. pure sulfuric acid C. water and sulfuric acid solution D. water and hydrochloric acid solution - ANS C. water and sulfuric acid solution 27. The term used to describe the weight of a volume of a liquid versus the weight of an equal volume of pure water is: A. atomic mass B. specific gravity C. relative gravity D. liquid mass - ANS B. specific gravity 28. Technician A says that battery cells that require frequent topping up is an indication of over-charging. Technician B says that voltage regulators should not be set above 14.1 volts on many current trucks. Who is correct? A. Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS C. Both A and B 29. Which of the following would be a consequence of reversing the polarity of a battery bank on truck electrical system? A. battery explosion B. damage to the truck electronics C. damage to the alternator D. all of the above - ANS D. all of the above 30. When load testing a fully charged, lead-acid battery at 80 degrees Fahrenheit at one half the rated CCA for 15 seconds, what is the lowest acceptable voltage during the test? A. 8.5 volts B. 9.6 volts C. 10.2 volts D. 12.6 volts - ANS B. 9.6 volts 31. Which of the following conditions will shorten the life of batteries? A. overcharging B. undercharging C. deep-cycling D. all of the above - ANS D. all of the above 32. Which of the following defects could result in an undercharged battery? A. loose belt(s) B. defective diode trio C. residual magnetism in the rotor D. all of the above - ANS D. all of the above 33. If you do not apply an electrical load to the batteries when full-fielding an alternator, which of the following could result? A. high voltage spikes B. damage to electrical componentS C. damage to electronic components D. all of the above - ANS D. all of the above 34. When does an energized diesel engine cranking motor produce peak torque? A. At close to stall RPM B. At the equivalent of 225 engine rpm C. At maximum cranking motor rpm D. After 15-seconds of cranking - ANS A. At close to stall RPM 35. Which of the following cranking circuit faults could cause slow cranking? A. weak batteries B. high viscosity engine oil C. corroded starter relay connections D. all of the above - ANS D. all of the above 36. Technician A says that the best way of locating high resistances in a cranking circuit is by using voltage drop testing. Technician B says that using an ohmmeter can locate high resistance stater cable. Who is correct? A. Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS A. Technician A only 37. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a 42 MT starter motor? A. produces low torque B. heavy C. will not crank high compression engines D. all of the above - ANS B. heavy 38. When the cranking circuit is energized in sub-zero conditions, the engine turns over slowly and unevenly. Which of the following would be the most likely cause? A. defective starter relay B defective starter solenoid C. gelled engine oil D. stripped flywheel ring gear - ANS C. gelled engine oil 39. When using a carbon pile to load test a battery, which of the following occurs as you turn the control knob clockwise? A. resistance reading increases B.current reading increase C. voltage reading increases D. voltage and current readings increase - ANS B. current reading increase 40. What does the brown color code represent in a SAE/ATA standard 7-wire trailer connector cord? A. auxiliary B. brakes C. ground D. tail lights - ANS D. tail lights 41. What is the function of a tachometer? A. measures engine rpm B. measures road speed C. displays engine hours D. displays exhaust gas temperature - ANS A. measures engine rpm 42. Technician A says that HID headlamps convert about 80% of the electrical energy they consume into light energy. Technician B says that halogen lights use more energy but produce a 20% brighter beam than equivalent HID beams. Who is correct? A. Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS A. Technician A only 43. Which American Trucking Association, Technical and Maintenance Council (TMC) recommended practice (RP) outlines the placement of instrument cluster gauges? A. RP 401 B. RP 285 C. RP 121 D. RP 108 - ANS A. RP 401 44. Technician A says that HID headlamps frequently fail because they are more vulnerable to road shock and vibration than halogen filament lamps. Technician B says that when HID headlamps fail, it is usually due to frequent cycling. Who is correct? A. Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS B. Technician B only 60. What can be used to apply force to an accumulator in a hydraulic circuit? A. spring force B. weight force C. gas pressure D. all of the above - ANS D. all of the above 61. Technician A says that a vane pump is classified as non-positive. Technician B says that a gear pump uses a positive displacement pumping principle. Who is correct? A. Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS B. Technician B only 62. Technician A says that changing the swash angle in a swash plate pump varies the displacement of the pump. Technician B says that some swashplate pumps are fixed displacement. Who is correct? A. Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS C. Both A and B 63. What type of valve is used as the primary directional control valve in most hydraulic circuits? A. ball and poppet B. gate valve C. spool valve D. pressure relief valve - ANS C. spool valve 64. Which of the following types of hydraulic hose should be used to sustain the highest pressures and surge spikes? A. fabric braid B. single wire braid C. multiple wire braid D. spiral wire braid - ANS D. spiral wire braid 65. Technician A says that ISO 32 is the most commonly used viscosity grade for hydraulic fluids. Technician B says that ISO 32 is equivalent to SAE 20 grade. Who is correct? A. Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS A. Technician A only 66. What is the usual cause of a hydraulic oil that has a milky appearance? A. aeration B. contamination with engine oil C. contamination with water D. chemical breakdown - ANS C. contamination with water 67. Which of the following could cause clutch hang-up? A. insufficient free travel B. misaligned intermediate plate drive pins C. seized throw-out bearing D. stretched clutch linkage rod - ANS B. misaligned intermediate plate drive pins 68. As clutch friction facings wear on a truck pull-type clutch, how is clutch pedal free travel affected? A. decreases B. increases C. unaffected - ANS A. decreases 69. Technician A says that one of advantages of a clutch brake is its ability to bring a vehicle to a halt at LOW speeds. Technician B says that improper use of a clutch brake when bring a vehicle to a halt can destroy it. Who is correct? A.Technician A only B. Technician B only C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ANS B. Technician B only 70. Which of the following components can easily be modified for use as a pilot shaft for installing clutch assemblies? A. clutch fork shaft B. transmission input shaft C. axle stub D. transmission tailshaft - ANS B. transmission input shaft 71. When installing a clutch pack assembly, at what point should you knock out the wood chocks that hold Off pressure plate spring pressure? A. before mounting clutch to the flywheel B. when pressure plate is bolted tight to the flywheel C. after installing the transmission D. final step before starting the engine - ANS B. when pressure plate is bolted tight to the flywheel 72. Which of the following clutch pack components has to always rotate at the same speed as the engine flywheel? A. pilot bearing inner race B. release bearing C. pressure plate D. friction discs - ANS C. pressure plate 73. When a gear with 14 teeth drives a gear with 21 teeth, how will speed and torque output be changed? a. speed increases, torque decreases b. torque increases, speed decreases c. both torque and speed decrease d. both speed and torque increase - ANS b. torque increases, speed decreases 74. How many countershafts are used in the forward section of a RoadRanger transmission? a. none b. one c. two d. three - ANS c. two 75. When discussing the rotation of gears and shafts in a truck transmission, which of the following terms can be used to describe clockwise rotation? a. forward b. right-hand c. left-hand d. both A and B e. both A and C - ANS d. both A and B 76. A gear of 12 inches in diameter is driving a second of 24 inches in diameter. Which of the following will result from the driven gear? a. speed increase only b. torque reduction, increased speed c. increased torque, reduced speed d. torque increase only - ANS c. increased torque, reduced speed 77. A gear with teeth machined straight and parallel to the shaft on which they are mounted are known as. a. spur gear b. helical gears c. amboid gears d. spiral gears - ANS a. spur gear 78. Technician A says that when making a 5-6 upshift on a I O-speed transmission, the gearshift lever should be moved into the sixth gear position before flipping the range control button into high range. Technician B says that when making a 6-5 downshift on a 10-speed transmission, the range control button should be flipped into low range before the gearshift lever is moved into the fifth gear position. Who is correct? a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B - ANS b. Technician B only 79. What is an auxiliary drive system for chassis accessories such as hydraulic pumps driven by the transmission known as? a. auxiliary transmission b. drop box c. transfer case d. power-takeoff (PTO) - ANS d. power-takeoff (PTO) 80. What is the most likely cause of a failed transmission bearing with noticeable discoloration? a. low oil level b. fretting c. fatigue d. dirt - ANS a. low oil level 81. When assembling a ten-speed, twin-countershaft transmission which of the following must be timed? a. front section b. auxiliary section c. both A and B d. neither A nor B - ANS c. both A and B 82. Technician A says that a mechanical road speed drive cable uses a dedicated gear on the input shaft of a standard transmission. Technician B says that an inductive type road speed sensor picks up its signal from the tailshaft of the transmission. Who is correct? a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B - ANS b. Technician B only 83. When a yoke seal race is damaged, which of the following is the cost-effective repair method? a. polish race with a crocus cloth b. machine the race to an undersize c. resleeve with a wear ring d. replace the yoke - ANS c. resleeve with a wear ring 84. Which of the following methods of heating a transmission bearing should be used to ensure that no bearing damage occurs ? a. use an oxy-acetylene cutting torch b. use a rosebud c. use a bearing hotplate and Tempilstick - ANS c. use a bearing hotplate and Tempilstick 85. What is used to signal rail position in an AutoShift transmission? a. Hall-effect sensors b. potentiometers c. variable capacitance sensors d. inductive pulse generators - ANS b. potentiometers 86. How many wiring harnesses are used to interface an AutoShift transmission to the vehicle? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - ANS c. 3 87. What is used to stop the countershafts for a shift in an AutoSmission if the clutch is either defective or out Of adjustment? a. nothing, gear clash will result b. inertia brake c. clutch brake d. snubber valve - ANS b. inertia brake 88. Technician A says that when the WT digital display (DD) is blank, the reason could be a problem in the electrical circuit to the shift selector. Technician B says that when the WT DD is blank, the data link may have failed. Who is correct? a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B - ANS c. Both A and B 89. Which of the following is a function of the slip yoke used on a driveshaft? a. slips to dampen clutch engagement and road shock b. allows the driveshaft to change length as differentials respond to the road profile c. permits the transmission slide back for service d. all of the above - ANS b. allows the driveshaft to change length as differentials respond to the road profile 90. Which of the following describes a broken back driveline arrangement. a. working angles of its U-joints are equal b. companion flanges or yokes are not parallel c. both A and B d. neither A nor B - ANS c. both A and B 91. Which of the following would represent ideal operating conditions for a pair of universal joints on a propeller shaft? a. maximum operating angle of 3 degrees b. minimum operating angle of 1/2 degree c. operating angles each U-joint should be within 1 degree d. all of the above - ANS d. all of the above 92. A technician greasing a driveshaft slip spline assembly applies lubricant until it appears at the pressure relief hole. What should be done next? a. cover the relief hole with a finger and add some more lubricant b. cease applying lube to avoid over-greasing c. continue applying lube until it appears at the slip yoke seal d. both A and C - ANS d. both A and C 93. How onen should a typical driveshaft hanger bearing be lubricated? a. when u-joints are lubed. b. they are factory lubricated and are not serviceable c. each time the slip yoke is lubed d. both A and C - ANS b. they are factory lubricated and are not serviceable 94. Which ofthe following types of universal joint damage would most likely result from improper installation? a. galling b. spalling c. pitting d. brinelling - ANS d. brinelling 95. Which ofthe following methods of separating a U-joint from a driveshaft yoke when it is on the truck, is preferred? a. hydraulic jack on yoke hub b. 50 1b slide hammer on yoke c. 16 1b sledge hammer d. two-jaw U-joint puller - ANS d. two-jaw U-joint puller