CEA EXAM PREP 2025 UPDATE NEWEST
TESTBANK COMPLETE 350 MOST TESTED
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
GRADED A+
Practice questions for this set
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Studied 7 terms
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Terms in this set (324)
,The patient is exhibiting a Left upper lobe lingula
productive cough and a Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
low-grade fever. Chest X- question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
ray on PA view shows a obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
left lower chest area of middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
consolidation adjacent to
the left border of the
heart approximately 2 rib
spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows
this lesion absent of the
window posterior to the
cardiac silhouette. Which
is the most likely location
of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully relax Diastolic dysfunction
the myocardium during Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
relaxation is a trademark trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
of which of the following and is common in patients with thickened
diagnoses? hypertrophic myocardium.
,An otherwise healthy Calcium channel blocker
African American adult Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
male has been diagnosed Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
with hypertension. He has dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
been restricting his salt amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
intake, eating a DASH therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and
(Dietary Approaches to lifestyle modifications.
Stop Hypertension) diet,
and exercising more, but
his blood pressure is still
elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to
prescribe him?
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard
Your patient has been of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
diagnosed with a 4.5cm with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for
ascending aortic the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
aneurysm. Which medical Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms
imaging is considered at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
standard of care for serial reconstruction needed to accurately measure the
surveillance? size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to
accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient
to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
phenylephrine
Which of the following
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
medications does not
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
cause beta 1 stimulation?
activity.
, Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
A 50-year-old woman with
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
a history of hypertension
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
presents with dyspnea on
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
exertion and orthopnea.
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
On examination, she has
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
jugular venous distention
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described
and bilateral crackles on
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion
lung auscultation. What is
and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid
the most likely diagnosis?
overload. The only appropriate response of these
available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
of HFrEF (heart failure Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
with reduced ejection Rationale: The patient should have a protective
fraction) with an ejection mechanism such as an implantable automated
fraction of 40% who is cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF
also not on optimal is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden
medical therapy has been cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients
diagnosed with a are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
myocardial infarction this optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
admission and received echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in
emergent placement of a their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
drug-eluting stent to the baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a
left anterior descending baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
artery. As the medical months.
home who will manage Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
this patient after minimum post-MI.
discharge, which A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable
medication strategy would benefit for this patient as presented.
you expect to be a priority
in the patient's care?
TESTBANK COMPLETE 350 MOST TESTED
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
GRADED A+
Practice questions for this set
Learn
Studied 7 terms
Nice work. You’re doing brilliantly.
Continue studying in Learn
Terms in this set (324)
,The patient is exhibiting a Left upper lobe lingula
productive cough and a Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
low-grade fever. Chest X- question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
ray on PA view shows a obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
left lower chest area of middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
consolidation adjacent to
the left border of the
heart approximately 2 rib
spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows
this lesion absent of the
window posterior to the
cardiac silhouette. Which
is the most likely location
of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully relax Diastolic dysfunction
the myocardium during Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
relaxation is a trademark trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
of which of the following and is common in patients with thickened
diagnoses? hypertrophic myocardium.
,An otherwise healthy Calcium channel blocker
African American adult Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
male has been diagnosed Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
with hypertension. He has dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
been restricting his salt amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
intake, eating a DASH therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and
(Dietary Approaches to lifestyle modifications.
Stop Hypertension) diet,
and exercising more, but
his blood pressure is still
elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to
prescribe him?
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard
Your patient has been of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
diagnosed with a 4.5cm with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for
ascending aortic the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery).
aneurysm. Which medical Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms
imaging is considered at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
standard of care for serial reconstruction needed to accurately measure the
surveillance? size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to
accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient
to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
phenylephrine
Which of the following
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
medications does not
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
cause beta 1 stimulation?
activity.
, Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate
A 50-year-old woman with
response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
a history of hypertension
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous
presents with dyspnea on
extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
exertion and orthopnea.
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the
On examination, she has
patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
jugular venous distention
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described
and bilateral crackles on
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion
lung auscultation. What is
and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid
the most likely diagnosis?
overload. The only appropriate response of these
available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
of HFrEF (heart failure Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
with reduced ejection Rationale: The patient should have a protective
fraction) with an ejection mechanism such as an implantable automated
fraction of 40% who is cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF
also not on optimal is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden
medical therapy has been cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients
diagnosed with a are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
myocardial infarction this optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
admission and received echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in
emergent placement of a their EF is required by most insurance companies. A
drug-eluting stent to the baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a
left anterior descending baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
artery. As the medical months.
home who will manage Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
this patient after minimum post-MI.
discharge, which A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable
medication strategy would benefit for this patient as presented.
you expect to be a priority
in the patient's care?
