NPTE EXAM TERMS QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
Cor Pulmonale - Answer-Right-sided heart failure arising from disease of the lungs.
Signs of right ventricular failure are elevated central venous pressure with distension of
the neck veins. Ascites(accumulation fluid in the peritoneal cavity) and peripheral
edema of the feet and ankles are common. Patients with heart failure usually
experience fatigue and exercise intolerance
Anemia - Answer-Decrease in the number of red blood cells that carry oxygen in the
blood in a variety of symptoms including pallor, cyanosis, vertigo, weakness, headache,
and malaise.
Diaphoresis - Answer-profuse perspiration and is often associated with shock or other
emergent medical conditions
Dysphonia - Answer-Disorder of vocalization characterized by an abnormal production
of sounds from the larynx. Main complaint usually is hoarseness ranging mild
roughness in the voice to not being able to produce voice.
Dysprosody - Answer-Impairment in rythm and inflection of speech
Dysarthria - Answer-Defects in articulation, enunciation or rythm of speech.
Dysphasia - Answer-Inability to use and understand written and spoken words as a
result of disorders involving the cortical centers of speech or their interconnections in
the dominant cerebral hemisphere.
Diplopia - Answer-Double vision
What ligament does the Talar Tilt Test assess? - Answer-Calcaneofibular
Corticospinal tract - Answer-Concerned with skilled motor control primarily of the distal
limbs. (Exhibits as paralysis and numbness of the side of the body contralateral to the
vascular accident)
Vestibulospinal Tract - Answer-Responsible for gross postural adjustments subsequent
to head movements and acceleration.
Tectospinal Tract - Answer-Responsible for visual information related to spatial
awareness. The tract controls the musculature of the neck as well as head position.
Rubrospinal Tract - Answer-Communicates with the thalmus and cerebellum and plays
an important role in the coordination of movement.
,L4 - Answer-Dermatome- medial Buttock, lateral thigh, medial leg, dorsum of foot, great
toe
Myotome- Tibialis Anterior, Extensor Hallucis
Reflexes- Patellar
L5 - Answer-Dermatome- buttock, posterior and lateral thigh, lateral aspect of leg,
dorsum of foot, medial half of sole
Myotome- Extensor Hallucis, peroneals, gluteus medius, dorsiflexors, hamstrings,
plantar flexors
Reflexes- Medial Hamstrings, Posterior Tib
S1 - Answer-Dermatome- lateral and plantar aspect of foot
Myotome- hamstrings, peroneals, plantar flexors
Reflexes- Achilles
S2 - Answer-Dermatome- buttock, thigh, posterior leg
Myotome- hamstrings, plantar flexors
Reflexes- Achilles
Cardiac Glycosides - Answer-Drugs that increase the myocardial contraction force;
increase myocardial contractility by elevating intracellular calcium levels and facilitating
actin-myosin in cardiac.
Nitrates - Answer-Produce general vasodilation throughout the body. Nitrates decrease
the amount of blood returning to the heart as the amount of work the heart must perform
which decreases myocardial oxygen demand.
Diuretics - Answer-Decrease volume of water within the vascular system by increasing
the renal excretion of sodium and water
Antiarrhythmics - Answer-Such as Sodium Channel Blockers normalize the rate of
sodium entry into cardiac tissues and thereby help control cardiac excitation and
conduction
FIM (Functional Independence Measure) - Answer-An 18-item functional assessment
that includes physical, psychological, and social functions. The FIM grades a patient's
functional status based on the level of assistance needed. The scoring scale ranges
from "1" (total assistance) to a "7" (complete independence).
Polyuria - Answer-Occurs in a hyperglycemic state because the body tries to remove
the excess glucose in the blood via increased excretion through the kidneys.
What is a symptom commonly associated with a hypoglycemic state? - Answer-
Headache
,Preload - Answer-Amount of the blood in the ventricle at the end of the diastolic phase
and is directly related to venous return. As preload increases, stroke volume with also
increase.
Afterload - Answer-Is the force the left ventricle must generate during the systolic phase
and is directly related to venous return. As afterload increases, stroke volume (and thus
cardiac output) will decrease.
Stroke Volume - Answer-Amount of blood ejected from the heart with each contraction
and is one of the variables used to calculate cardiac output. As stroke volume increase,
cardiac output will also increase.
HDL Cholesterol - Answer-40-59 mg/dl
Good Cholesterol
Lower the number the more increased risk of coronary artery disease. (Pharmacological
Therapies)
LDL Cholesterol - Answer-Less than 100 mg/dl is good
More than 190 is very high
Bad Cholesterol
High levels of LDL increase the risk of coronary artery disease.
What assistive device would be most appropriate to use for a patient that can not stand
without support, has fair standing balance, and is impulsive at times? - Answer-Walker
When performing Lachman test, how much flexion should you position the knee in? -
Answer-Supine; 20-30 degrees
When trying to engage with a patient who is extremely withdrawn, what questions
should you avoid? - Answer-Questions with "yes" or "no" answers. Ask questions that
require some level of explanation and insight
How much pressure would typically be necessary to control lower extremity edema? -
Answer-35 mm Hg (16-18 mm Hg: "off shelf stocking" used to prevent DVT in pts who
are in bed; 20-30 mm hg: control scar tissue formation)
Which finding would serve as the BEST indicator that the patient has exerted maximal
effort? - Answer-Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increases in exercise
intensity.
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis - Answer-Chronic degenerative disease that produces
both upper and lower motor neuron impairments. Motor weakness typically presents in
a distal to proximal progression. Weakness combined with fatigue make it unlikely the
patient would able to ambulate with HKAFOs.
, Peripheral Neuritis - Answer-Refers to the inflammation of the nerves and is
synonymous with the term peripheral neuropathy. Symptoms may include numbness,
tingling, paresthesia, sensitivity to touch, and muscle weakness.
Neurogenic Arthropathy - Answer-Rapidly destructive arthropathy due to impaired pain
perception and position sense, which can result from various underlying disorders, most
commonly diabetes and stroke. Symptoms may include joint swelling, effusion,
deformity, and instability. Treatment usually consists of joint mobilization which slows
the disease progression.
Spina Bifida - Answer-Neural tube defect characterized by defective closure of the
vertebral column. HKAFOs are often employed to assist pediatric patients with
ambulation activities. The high energy cost of ambulating with the orthosis often makes
community ambulation difficult.
EMG: What is most indicative of a normal muscle at rest? - Answer-A normally
innervated muscle is electrically silent at rest.
EMG: Spontaneous Electrical Potenetials - Answer-Like fibrillations and sharp waves
are seen in acutely denervated muscle. Fibrillation and positive sharp waves are the
result of spontaneous discharge of a single muscle fiber.
EMG: Polyphasic Potentials - Answer-Electrical potentials from a denervated muscle
unit. A motor unit that exhibits five or more phases is referred to as polyphasic.
EMG: Neuropraxia - Answer-Likely when occasional motor unit potentials occur during
minimal effort muscle contractions two to three weeks after injury.
Osteosarcoma - Answer-Is a malignant bone growth (tumor) affecting long bones of the
body. It is most commonly diagnosed in the distal femur, followed by proximal tibia, and
the proximal humerus.
Ewing's Sarcoma - Answer-Malignant growth affecting both long bones and flat bones.
Most commonly present in spine, pelvis, and long bones of extremities.
Osteochondroma - Answer-Most common occurring types of benign bone tumors. Most
commonly diagnosed near the ends of long bones.
Ankle strategy in response to forward sway - Answer-Requires activation of paraspinals,
hamstrings, and gastocnemius
Ankle strategy in response to backward sway - Answer-Requires activation of the
abdominals, quadriceps, and tibialis anterior.
Hip strategy in response to forward sway - Answer-Activation of the abdominals and
quadriceps
ANSWERS
Cor Pulmonale - Answer-Right-sided heart failure arising from disease of the lungs.
Signs of right ventricular failure are elevated central venous pressure with distension of
the neck veins. Ascites(accumulation fluid in the peritoneal cavity) and peripheral
edema of the feet and ankles are common. Patients with heart failure usually
experience fatigue and exercise intolerance
Anemia - Answer-Decrease in the number of red blood cells that carry oxygen in the
blood in a variety of symptoms including pallor, cyanosis, vertigo, weakness, headache,
and malaise.
Diaphoresis - Answer-profuse perspiration and is often associated with shock or other
emergent medical conditions
Dysphonia - Answer-Disorder of vocalization characterized by an abnormal production
of sounds from the larynx. Main complaint usually is hoarseness ranging mild
roughness in the voice to not being able to produce voice.
Dysprosody - Answer-Impairment in rythm and inflection of speech
Dysarthria - Answer-Defects in articulation, enunciation or rythm of speech.
Dysphasia - Answer-Inability to use and understand written and spoken words as a
result of disorders involving the cortical centers of speech or their interconnections in
the dominant cerebral hemisphere.
Diplopia - Answer-Double vision
What ligament does the Talar Tilt Test assess? - Answer-Calcaneofibular
Corticospinal tract - Answer-Concerned with skilled motor control primarily of the distal
limbs. (Exhibits as paralysis and numbness of the side of the body contralateral to the
vascular accident)
Vestibulospinal Tract - Answer-Responsible for gross postural adjustments subsequent
to head movements and acceleration.
Tectospinal Tract - Answer-Responsible for visual information related to spatial
awareness. The tract controls the musculature of the neck as well as head position.
Rubrospinal Tract - Answer-Communicates with the thalmus and cerebellum and plays
an important role in the coordination of movement.
,L4 - Answer-Dermatome- medial Buttock, lateral thigh, medial leg, dorsum of foot, great
toe
Myotome- Tibialis Anterior, Extensor Hallucis
Reflexes- Patellar
L5 - Answer-Dermatome- buttock, posterior and lateral thigh, lateral aspect of leg,
dorsum of foot, medial half of sole
Myotome- Extensor Hallucis, peroneals, gluteus medius, dorsiflexors, hamstrings,
plantar flexors
Reflexes- Medial Hamstrings, Posterior Tib
S1 - Answer-Dermatome- lateral and plantar aspect of foot
Myotome- hamstrings, peroneals, plantar flexors
Reflexes- Achilles
S2 - Answer-Dermatome- buttock, thigh, posterior leg
Myotome- hamstrings, plantar flexors
Reflexes- Achilles
Cardiac Glycosides - Answer-Drugs that increase the myocardial contraction force;
increase myocardial contractility by elevating intracellular calcium levels and facilitating
actin-myosin in cardiac.
Nitrates - Answer-Produce general vasodilation throughout the body. Nitrates decrease
the amount of blood returning to the heart as the amount of work the heart must perform
which decreases myocardial oxygen demand.
Diuretics - Answer-Decrease volume of water within the vascular system by increasing
the renal excretion of sodium and water
Antiarrhythmics - Answer-Such as Sodium Channel Blockers normalize the rate of
sodium entry into cardiac tissues and thereby help control cardiac excitation and
conduction
FIM (Functional Independence Measure) - Answer-An 18-item functional assessment
that includes physical, psychological, and social functions. The FIM grades a patient's
functional status based on the level of assistance needed. The scoring scale ranges
from "1" (total assistance) to a "7" (complete independence).
Polyuria - Answer-Occurs in a hyperglycemic state because the body tries to remove
the excess glucose in the blood via increased excretion through the kidneys.
What is a symptom commonly associated with a hypoglycemic state? - Answer-
Headache
,Preload - Answer-Amount of the blood in the ventricle at the end of the diastolic phase
and is directly related to venous return. As preload increases, stroke volume with also
increase.
Afterload - Answer-Is the force the left ventricle must generate during the systolic phase
and is directly related to venous return. As afterload increases, stroke volume (and thus
cardiac output) will decrease.
Stroke Volume - Answer-Amount of blood ejected from the heart with each contraction
and is one of the variables used to calculate cardiac output. As stroke volume increase,
cardiac output will also increase.
HDL Cholesterol - Answer-40-59 mg/dl
Good Cholesterol
Lower the number the more increased risk of coronary artery disease. (Pharmacological
Therapies)
LDL Cholesterol - Answer-Less than 100 mg/dl is good
More than 190 is very high
Bad Cholesterol
High levels of LDL increase the risk of coronary artery disease.
What assistive device would be most appropriate to use for a patient that can not stand
without support, has fair standing balance, and is impulsive at times? - Answer-Walker
When performing Lachman test, how much flexion should you position the knee in? -
Answer-Supine; 20-30 degrees
When trying to engage with a patient who is extremely withdrawn, what questions
should you avoid? - Answer-Questions with "yes" or "no" answers. Ask questions that
require some level of explanation and insight
How much pressure would typically be necessary to control lower extremity edema? -
Answer-35 mm Hg (16-18 mm Hg: "off shelf stocking" used to prevent DVT in pts who
are in bed; 20-30 mm hg: control scar tissue formation)
Which finding would serve as the BEST indicator that the patient has exerted maximal
effort? - Answer-Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increases in exercise
intensity.
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis - Answer-Chronic degenerative disease that produces
both upper and lower motor neuron impairments. Motor weakness typically presents in
a distal to proximal progression. Weakness combined with fatigue make it unlikely the
patient would able to ambulate with HKAFOs.
, Peripheral Neuritis - Answer-Refers to the inflammation of the nerves and is
synonymous with the term peripheral neuropathy. Symptoms may include numbness,
tingling, paresthesia, sensitivity to touch, and muscle weakness.
Neurogenic Arthropathy - Answer-Rapidly destructive arthropathy due to impaired pain
perception and position sense, which can result from various underlying disorders, most
commonly diabetes and stroke. Symptoms may include joint swelling, effusion,
deformity, and instability. Treatment usually consists of joint mobilization which slows
the disease progression.
Spina Bifida - Answer-Neural tube defect characterized by defective closure of the
vertebral column. HKAFOs are often employed to assist pediatric patients with
ambulation activities. The high energy cost of ambulating with the orthosis often makes
community ambulation difficult.
EMG: What is most indicative of a normal muscle at rest? - Answer-A normally
innervated muscle is electrically silent at rest.
EMG: Spontaneous Electrical Potenetials - Answer-Like fibrillations and sharp waves
are seen in acutely denervated muscle. Fibrillation and positive sharp waves are the
result of spontaneous discharge of a single muscle fiber.
EMG: Polyphasic Potentials - Answer-Electrical potentials from a denervated muscle
unit. A motor unit that exhibits five or more phases is referred to as polyphasic.
EMG: Neuropraxia - Answer-Likely when occasional motor unit potentials occur during
minimal effort muscle contractions two to three weeks after injury.
Osteosarcoma - Answer-Is a malignant bone growth (tumor) affecting long bones of the
body. It is most commonly diagnosed in the distal femur, followed by proximal tibia, and
the proximal humerus.
Ewing's Sarcoma - Answer-Malignant growth affecting both long bones and flat bones.
Most commonly present in spine, pelvis, and long bones of extremities.
Osteochondroma - Answer-Most common occurring types of benign bone tumors. Most
commonly diagnosed near the ends of long bones.
Ankle strategy in response to forward sway - Answer-Requires activation of paraspinals,
hamstrings, and gastocnemius
Ankle strategy in response to backward sway - Answer-Requires activation of the
abdominals, quadriceps, and tibialis anterior.
Hip strategy in response to forward sway - Answer-Activation of the abdominals and
quadriceps
