PHARMACOLOGY (GREEN PACOP)
Exam Questions and Answers
1. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:
a. specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment
c. both
d. none - correct answer-b. concentration gradient across a membrane
separating body compartment
2. Physical factors influencing absorption:
a. total surface area available for absorption
b. contact time at the absorption surface
c. blood flow to the absorption site
d. all
e. none - correct answer-d. all
3. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
a. minimum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum concentration
c. time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration
d. all
e. none - correct answer-a. minimum serum drug concentration
4. Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:
a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion e. none
c. passive tubular secretion
d. passive glomerular filtration
e. none - correct answer-a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular
filtration
5. A drug which has no effect enhances the effect of a second drug:
a. antagonism
b. potentiation
c. synergism
d. summative
e. additive - correct answer-b. potentiation
6. Parameters used to evaluate time-response relationship, EXCEPT:
, a. duration of action
b. latency
c. peak time
d. onset of action
e. none - correct answer-e. none
7. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
a. maximum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum drug concentration
c. time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration
d. all
e. none - correct answer-b. minimum serum drug concentration
8. When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable effect is
observed, the dose that
9. produces this effect is called:
a. quantal dose
b. threshold dose
c. lethal dose
d. a and b
e. b and c - correct answer-b. threshold dose
10. Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling to the cortex:
a. thalamus
b. pons
c. medulla
d. hypothalamus - correct answer-a. thalamus
11. 10.Inhaled anesthetics are relatively insoluble in blood and brain are eliminated
at faster rate than the more
12. soluble anesthetics:
a. True
b. False - correct answer-a. True
13. Coordinate body movement and posture to help maintain body equilibrium:
a. cerebrum of the peptide bond
b. main stem of H-bond
c. cerebellum
d. none - correct answer-c. cerebellum
14. Treatment of neuroses:
a. psychotherapy
b. anxiolytic
c. antianxiety agent
d. all
e. none - correct answer-d. all
,15. Used prophylactically in treating manic depressive patients and in the treatment
of manic episodes:
a. anti-psychotics
b. lithium salts
c. anxiolytic drugs
d. all - correct answer-b. lithium salts
16. Used in treating complex partial seizure:
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. both
d. none - correct answer-c. both
17. Generalized tonic-clonic drug:
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Valproic acid - correct answer-b. Phenytoin
18. The most important criterion in determining whether surgical anesthesia has
been achieved is:
a. papillary dilation
b. respiratory lagging
c. absence of eye motion
d. vomiting - correct answer-c. absence of eye motion
19. The branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of the action of drug on
functions of the body:
a. Toxicology
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmaokinetics
d. none - correct answer-b. Pharmacodynamics
20. Drug of choice in the treatment of status epiliptecus:
a. Phenobarbital
b. Diphenylhydantoin
c. Diazepam
d. all - correct answer-c. Diazepam
21. An anti-platelet drug:
a. Dipyridamole
b. Urokinase
c. Heparin
d. all - correct answer-a. Dipyridamole
, 22. The branch of pharmacology that deals with disposition and fate of drug is:
a. Pharmacodynamics
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. both
d. none - correct answer-b. Pharmacokinetics
23. Causes mydriasis by blocking the parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter
muscle of the iris:
a. Atropine
b. Cocaine
c. Lidocaine
d. all - correct answer-a. Atropine
24. Drug of choice for Tularemia:
a. Streptomycin
b. Griseofulvin
c. Amphotericin
d. all - correct answer-a. Streptomycin
25. The ff. conditions are prone to thrombus formation, EXCEPT:
a. Arrhythmia
b. varicose vein
c. thrombocytopenia
d. none - correct answer-a. Arrhythmia
26. Can improve the CO of CHF patient:
a. Dobutamine
b. Reserpine
c. all
d. none - correct answer-a. Dobutamine
27. Effective for the management of acute gouty arthritis:
a. Probenecid
b. Aspirin
c. Allopurinol
d. all - correct answer-c. Allopurinol
28. Derease the probability of second MI:
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Streptokinase
d. none - correct answer-b. Aspirin
29. Inhibits warfarin metabolism and causes potentiation of anticoagulant:
a. Rifampin
b. Cimetidine
Exam Questions and Answers
1. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:
a. specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment
c. both
d. none - correct answer-b. concentration gradient across a membrane
separating body compartment
2. Physical factors influencing absorption:
a. total surface area available for absorption
b. contact time at the absorption surface
c. blood flow to the absorption site
d. all
e. none - correct answer-d. all
3. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
a. minimum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum concentration
c. time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration
d. all
e. none - correct answer-a. minimum serum drug concentration
4. Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:
a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion e. none
c. passive tubular secretion
d. passive glomerular filtration
e. none - correct answer-a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular
filtration
5. A drug which has no effect enhances the effect of a second drug:
a. antagonism
b. potentiation
c. synergism
d. summative
e. additive - correct answer-b. potentiation
6. Parameters used to evaluate time-response relationship, EXCEPT:
, a. duration of action
b. latency
c. peak time
d. onset of action
e. none - correct answer-e. none
7. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
a. maximum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum drug concentration
c. time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration
d. all
e. none - correct answer-b. minimum serum drug concentration
8. When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable effect is
observed, the dose that
9. produces this effect is called:
a. quantal dose
b. threshold dose
c. lethal dose
d. a and b
e. b and c - correct answer-b. threshold dose
10. Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling to the cortex:
a. thalamus
b. pons
c. medulla
d. hypothalamus - correct answer-a. thalamus
11. 10.Inhaled anesthetics are relatively insoluble in blood and brain are eliminated
at faster rate than the more
12. soluble anesthetics:
a. True
b. False - correct answer-a. True
13. Coordinate body movement and posture to help maintain body equilibrium:
a. cerebrum of the peptide bond
b. main stem of H-bond
c. cerebellum
d. none - correct answer-c. cerebellum
14. Treatment of neuroses:
a. psychotherapy
b. anxiolytic
c. antianxiety agent
d. all
e. none - correct answer-d. all
,15. Used prophylactically in treating manic depressive patients and in the treatment
of manic episodes:
a. anti-psychotics
b. lithium salts
c. anxiolytic drugs
d. all - correct answer-b. lithium salts
16. Used in treating complex partial seizure:
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. both
d. none - correct answer-c. both
17. Generalized tonic-clonic drug:
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Valproic acid - correct answer-b. Phenytoin
18. The most important criterion in determining whether surgical anesthesia has
been achieved is:
a. papillary dilation
b. respiratory lagging
c. absence of eye motion
d. vomiting - correct answer-c. absence of eye motion
19. The branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of the action of drug on
functions of the body:
a. Toxicology
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmaokinetics
d. none - correct answer-b. Pharmacodynamics
20. Drug of choice in the treatment of status epiliptecus:
a. Phenobarbital
b. Diphenylhydantoin
c. Diazepam
d. all - correct answer-c. Diazepam
21. An anti-platelet drug:
a. Dipyridamole
b. Urokinase
c. Heparin
d. all - correct answer-a. Dipyridamole
, 22. The branch of pharmacology that deals with disposition and fate of drug is:
a. Pharmacodynamics
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. both
d. none - correct answer-b. Pharmacokinetics
23. Causes mydriasis by blocking the parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter
muscle of the iris:
a. Atropine
b. Cocaine
c. Lidocaine
d. all - correct answer-a. Atropine
24. Drug of choice for Tularemia:
a. Streptomycin
b. Griseofulvin
c. Amphotericin
d. all - correct answer-a. Streptomycin
25. The ff. conditions are prone to thrombus formation, EXCEPT:
a. Arrhythmia
b. varicose vein
c. thrombocytopenia
d. none - correct answer-a. Arrhythmia
26. Can improve the CO of CHF patient:
a. Dobutamine
b. Reserpine
c. all
d. none - correct answer-a. Dobutamine
27. Effective for the management of acute gouty arthritis:
a. Probenecid
b. Aspirin
c. Allopurinol
d. all - correct answer-c. Allopurinol
28. Derease the probability of second MI:
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Streptokinase
d. none - correct answer-b. Aspirin
29. Inhibits warfarin metabolism and causes potentiation of anticoagulant:
a. Rifampin
b. Cimetidine
