MATERNITY NURSING Labs OB1 Questions & Answers Rated A+ 2024

The nurse is counselling a couple who has sought information about conceiving. The couple asks the nurse to explain when ovulation usually occurs. Which statement by the nurse is correct? A. Two weeks before menstruation. B. Immediately after menstruation. C. Immediately before menstruation. D. Three weeks before menstruation. A. Two weeks before menstruation. The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take? A. Administer oxygen by face mask. B. Notify the health care provider of the client's symptoms. C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands. D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate. C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands. When assessing a client at 12 weeks of gestation, the nurse recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes? A. At 16 weeks of gestation. B. At 20 weeks of gestation. C. At 24 weeks of gestation. D. At 30 weeks of gestation. D. At 30 weeks of gestation. One hour following a normal vaginal delivery, a newborn infant boy's axillary temperature is 96° F, his lower lip is shaking and, when the nurse assesses for a Moro reflex, the boy's hands shake. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Stimulate the infant to cry. B. Wrap the infant in warm blankets. C. Feed the infant formula. D. Obtain a serum glucose level. D. Obtain a serum glucose level. Which statement made by the client indicates that the mother understands the limitations of breastfeeding her newborn? A. "Breastfeeding my infant consistently every 3 to 4 hours stops ovulation and my period." B. "Breastfeeding my baby immediately after drinking alcohol is safer than waiting for the alcohol to clear my breast milk." C. "I can start smoking cigarettes while breastfeeding because it will not affect my breast milk." D. "When I take a warm shower after I breastfeed, it relieves the pain from being engorged between breastfeedings." A. "Breastfeeding my infant consistently every 3 to 4 hours stops ovulation and my period." When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion? A. Sperm count B. Sperm motility C. Sperm maturity D. Semen volume B. Sperm motility A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group, and all of them have their own child already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this couple? A. Fear related to the unknown. B. Pain related to numerous procedures. C. Ineffective family coping related to infertility. D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility. D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester? A. Dysuria B. Frequency C. Incontinence D. Burning B. Frequency Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following? A. Increased plasma HCG levels B. Decreased intestinal motility C. Decreased gastric acidity D. Elevated estrogen levels C. Decreased gastric acidity In which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma? A. Breast, areola, and nipples B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose A pregnant client states that she "waddles" when she walks. The nurse's explanation is based on which of the following is the cause? A. The large size of the newborn. B. Pressure on the pelvic muscles. C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints. D. Excessive weight gain. C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy? A. 12 to 22 lb B 15 to 25 lb C. 24 to 30 lb D. 25 to 40 lb C. 24 to 30 lb When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following? A. Thrombophlebitis B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus D. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? A. Diagnostic signs B. Presumptive signs C. Probable signs D. Positive signs C. Probable signs Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy? A. Hegar sign B. Nausea and vomiting C. Skin pigmentation changes D. Positive serum pregnancy test B. Nausea and vomiting Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester? A. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism. B. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness. C. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion. D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies. D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies. During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition? A. Prepregnant period B. First trimester C. Second trimester D. Third trimester B. First trimester Which of the following would be a disadvantage of breastfeeding? A. Involution occurs more rapidly. B. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies. C. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body. D. There is a greater chance for error during preparation. C. The father may resent the infant's demands on the mother's body. Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test? A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion. B. The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy. C. The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature. D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending. A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following? A. 5 weeks gestation B. 10 weeks gestation C. 15 weeks gestation D. 20 weeks gestation D. 20 weeks gestation A client LMP began July 5, 2020. Her estimated date of delivery (EDD) should be which of the following? A. January 2, 2021 B. March 28, 2021 C. April 12, 2021 D. October 12, 2020 C. April 12, 2021 Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks' gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown? A. Uterus in the pelvis B. Uterus at the xiphoid C. Uterus in the abdomen D. Uterus at the umbilicus A. Uterus in the pelvis Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the antepartum period? A. Constipation B. Breast tenderness C. Nasal stuffiness D. Leaking amniotic fluid D. Leaking amniotic fluid Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant? A. Hematocrit 33.5% B. Rubella titer less than 1:8 C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3 D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL B. Rubella titer less than 1:8 Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor? A. Occurring at irregular intervals. B. Starting mainly in the abdomen. C. Gradually increasing intervals. D. Increasing intensity with walking. D. Increasing intensity with walking. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess "crowning"? A. First stage B. Second stage C. Third stage D. Fourth stage B. Second stage Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor for which of the following reasons? A. The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first few days. B. These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular injection. C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and the lack of an antagonist makes them generally inappropriate during labor. D. Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction, or partial or total respiratory failure. C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and the lack of an antagonist makes them generally inappropriate during labor. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of labor? A. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests. B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes. C. Coach for effective client pushing. D. Promote parent-newborn interaction. D. Promote parent-newborn interaction. Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse's understanding of the newborn's thermoregulatory ability? A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer. B. Suctioning with a bulb syringe. C. Obtaining an Apgar score. D. Inspecting the newborn's umbilical cord. A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur? A. Descent B. Flexion C. Extension D. External rotation D. External rotation Before birth, which of the following structures connects the right and left auricles of the heart? A. Umbilical vein B. Foramen ovale C. Ductus arteriosus D. Ductus venosus B. Foramen ovale Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn? A. Mucus B. Uric acid crystals C. Bilirubin D. Excess iron B. Uric acid crystals When assessing the newborn's heart rate, which of the following ranges would be considered normal if the newborn were sleeping? A. 80 beats per minute B. 100 beats per minute C. 120 beats per minute D. 140 beats per minute B. 100 beats per minute Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn? A. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond-shaped. B. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks. C. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel. D. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken. C. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel. Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below are present at birth and remain unchanged through adulthood? A. Blink, cough, rooting, and gag B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag C. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough D. Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex? A. The newborn's toes will hyperextend and fan apart from the dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of the foot is stroked upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball of the foot. B. The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may begin to cry when exposed to sudden movement or loud noise. C. The newborn turns the head in the direction of the stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins to suck when the cheek, lip, or corner of the mouth is touched. D. The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms and legs when he is placed on his abdomen on a flat surface. A. The newborn's toes will hyperextend and fan apart from the dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of the foot is stroked upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball of the foot. Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum? A. Severe anemia leading to an electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems. B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to an electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems C. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal nutrients. D. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal bleeding. B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to an electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic sign of PIH? A. Edema of the feet and ankles B. Edema of the hands and face C. Weight gain of 1 lb/week D. Early morning headache B. Edema of the hands and face In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test? A. Threatened B. Imminent C. Missed D. Incomplete C. Missed Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as predisposing a client to placenta previa? A. Multiple gestation B. Uterine anomalies C. Abdominal trauma D. Renal or vascular disease A. Multiple gestation Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta? A. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding C. Palpable fetal outline D. Soft and nontender abdomen B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage? A. Placenta previa B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Incompetent cervix D. Abruptio placenta D. Abruptio placenta