Dialysis Nurse
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DIALYSIS NURSE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERY CORRECT ANWERS 2024
1. GFR of Stage 1. Normal kidney function but urine or other abnormalities point
to kidney disease.: 90+
2. GFR of Stage 2. Mildly reduced kidney function, urine or other abnormalities
point to kidney disease.: 60-89
3. GFR of Stage 3. Moderately reduced kidney function.: 30-59
4. GFR of Stage 2. Severely reduced kidney function.: 15-29
5. GFR of Stage 1. Very severely reduced kidney function (also called End
Stage Renal Disease).: <15
6. Types of source water are:: Surface and Ground
7. Examples of Surface water:: Lakes, streams, rivers, reservoirs
8. Examples of Ground water:: Wells, underground springs
9. FMC follows water quality standards according to _________ standards.: -
AAMI
10. Bone disease can be caused by _________ in product water.: aluminum
11. Aluminum in product water put the patient at risk for _________.: anemia
12. Aluminum, chloramines, copper, or zinc may cause ________ when present in
water used for dialysis.: hemolysis
13. Define sepsis:: The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream.
14. Define endotoxin:: Parts of a bacteria cell wall, released from dead bacteria.
15. List some characteristics of bacteria and/or viruses:: > Grows rapidly
> Too large to cross an intact dialyzer membrane, but can cross a damaged/torn
membrane
> May produce endotoxins or biofilm
16. Safe range for total chlorine is:: Less than 0.1 ppm (0.00-0.09 ppm)
17. __________ is a serious side effect if chlorine crosses the dialyzer membrane.:
Hemolysis
18. Chloramine is a combination of:: Chlorine and Ammonia
19. Chlorine and chloramines are added to city water for what reason?: To reduce
or eliminate bacteria.
20. _________ is a patient complication due to the exposure of blood to chlorine and
chloramines.: Hemolysis
, .
Dialysis Nurse
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21. Give examples of the symptoms the patient might experience from this serious
side effect.: > Chest pain
> Shortness of breath
> Cherry pop red / translucent blood
22. Where does the water pathway start in the dialysis facility?: City Water Inlet
23. __________ ____________ is the first piece of equipment that the water goes
through in the dialysis facility.: Backflow Preventer
24 What is the function of the Backflow Preventer equipment?: Prevents water from
flowing back into the city water supply.
25. _______ degrees F is the recommended water temperature for ideal RO
operation.: 77
26. Describe the function of the water booster pump:: Boosts incoming city water
pressure.
27. Describe the function of the Captive air (expansion/bladder) tank:: Helps to
maintain a minimum pressure.
28. Describe the function of the Chemical feed pumps:: Helps to adjust pH level of
the water.
29. Describe the function of the Sediment filters:: Removes larger particles from the
incoming water.
30. Describe the function of the Multimedia Filter:: Removes particles 10 microns in
size or larger.
31. ______ microns in the size of particulate matter removed by the multimedia
filter.: 10
32. Describe the function of the Carbon (GAC) Filter/Tank.: To remove Chlorine and
Chloramines and other organic materials.
33. Carbon filters remove chlorine and chloramines by the process of
___________.: adsorption
34. Define Empty Bed Contact Time:: The length of time that the water is exposed to
carbon.
35. AAMI requires a minimum for Empty Bed Contact Time (EBCT) of _________
minutes. However, FMC requires a minimum of ________ minutes of EBCT for
new water treatment systems.: 10; 12
36. RPC Ultra-Low Total Chlorine test strips are used to test for
__________________ and ___________________.: Total Chlorine in the water after
GAC (Carbon) filter #1; and Post RO.
, .
Dialysis Nurse
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37. When and at what frequency is routine total chlorine testing performed per
FMC policy?: Prior to the initiation of treatment and at least every 4 hours.
38. The Reverse Osmosis (RO) machine runs _______ minutes before performing
any total chlorine testing.: 15
39. Total chlorine testing for a central water system must be performed and
documented ________ qualified staff members.: 2
40. A sample container is always rinsed ______ times before a sample is collected
for total chlorine testing.: 3
41. ________ ml is the correct amount of water to collect for total chlorine testing
when using RPC Ultra-Low Total Chlorine test strips.: 100
42 How long is the RPC Ultra-Low Total Chlorine Test strip immersed in the
sample?: 60 seconds
43. If a chlorine breakthrough occurs post GAC (Carbon) filter #1, what are the
several steps that are taken to ensure patients are safe from harm?: 1. Place all
machines in bypass 2. Repeat test (optional)
3. Immediately test after GAC#2/Carbon Tank #2
4. If results are less than 0.01, notify the Clinic Manager, MD, and ATOM/BMT
44. If total chlorine testing after the second carbon tank (post GAC Filter #2) shows
results above the action limit, what action is immediately taken?: Immediately stop
treatments!
45. _________ and ___________ are removed from water by the softener by the
process of ________ __________.: Calcium and Magnesium; ion exchange.
46. Water hardness is measure in parts per million (PPM). The FMS acceptable
limit for water hardness post softener is _______ PPM.: 20
47. Normally there are _____ water hardness tests are done daily.: 2
48. Hardness strips test for the presence of __________ and __________.: calcium
and magnesium
49. The RO must run for a minimum of ______ minutes prior to testing the water.:
15
50. Define "product water.": Water exiting the RO and that meets that AAMI standards
for water to be used for dialysis.
51. RO performance is measured by _________ ___________.: percent rejection
52. The full calibration of the TDS meter is required __________.: weekly
53. UV light is a form of ___________ ___________.: invisible radiation
54. Ultra Violet (UV) lights are effective when they have a wave length of _____
nanometers.: 254
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6266af
DIALYSIS NURSE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERY CORRECT ANWERS 2024
1. GFR of Stage 1. Normal kidney function but urine or other abnormalities point
to kidney disease.: 90+
2. GFR of Stage 2. Mildly reduced kidney function, urine or other abnormalities
point to kidney disease.: 60-89
3. GFR of Stage 3. Moderately reduced kidney function.: 30-59
4. GFR of Stage 2. Severely reduced kidney function.: 15-29
5. GFR of Stage 1. Very severely reduced kidney function (also called End
Stage Renal Disease).: <15
6. Types of source water are:: Surface and Ground
7. Examples of Surface water:: Lakes, streams, rivers, reservoirs
8. Examples of Ground water:: Wells, underground springs
9. FMC follows water quality standards according to _________ standards.: -
AAMI
10. Bone disease can be caused by _________ in product water.: aluminum
11. Aluminum in product water put the patient at risk for _________.: anemia
12. Aluminum, chloramines, copper, or zinc may cause ________ when present in
water used for dialysis.: hemolysis
13. Define sepsis:: The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream.
14. Define endotoxin:: Parts of a bacteria cell wall, released from dead bacteria.
15. List some characteristics of bacteria and/or viruses:: > Grows rapidly
> Too large to cross an intact dialyzer membrane, but can cross a damaged/torn
membrane
> May produce endotoxins or biofilm
16. Safe range for total chlorine is:: Less than 0.1 ppm (0.00-0.09 ppm)
17. __________ is a serious side effect if chlorine crosses the dialyzer membrane.:
Hemolysis
18. Chloramine is a combination of:: Chlorine and Ammonia
19. Chlorine and chloramines are added to city water for what reason?: To reduce
or eliminate bacteria.
20. _________ is a patient complication due to the exposure of blood to chlorine and
chloramines.: Hemolysis
, .
Dialysis Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6266af
21. Give examples of the symptoms the patient might experience from this serious
side effect.: > Chest pain
> Shortness of breath
> Cherry pop red / translucent blood
22. Where does the water pathway start in the dialysis facility?: City Water Inlet
23. __________ ____________ is the first piece of equipment that the water goes
through in the dialysis facility.: Backflow Preventer
24 What is the function of the Backflow Preventer equipment?: Prevents water from
flowing back into the city water supply.
25. _______ degrees F is the recommended water temperature for ideal RO
operation.: 77
26. Describe the function of the water booster pump:: Boosts incoming city water
pressure.
27. Describe the function of the Captive air (expansion/bladder) tank:: Helps to
maintain a minimum pressure.
28. Describe the function of the Chemical feed pumps:: Helps to adjust pH level of
the water.
29. Describe the function of the Sediment filters:: Removes larger particles from the
incoming water.
30. Describe the function of the Multimedia Filter:: Removes particles 10 microns in
size or larger.
31. ______ microns in the size of particulate matter removed by the multimedia
filter.: 10
32. Describe the function of the Carbon (GAC) Filter/Tank.: To remove Chlorine and
Chloramines and other organic materials.
33. Carbon filters remove chlorine and chloramines by the process of
___________.: adsorption
34. Define Empty Bed Contact Time:: The length of time that the water is exposed to
carbon.
35. AAMI requires a minimum for Empty Bed Contact Time (EBCT) of _________
minutes. However, FMC requires a minimum of ________ minutes of EBCT for
new water treatment systems.: 10; 12
36. RPC Ultra-Low Total Chlorine test strips are used to test for
__________________ and ___________________.: Total Chlorine in the water after
GAC (Carbon) filter #1; and Post RO.
, .
Dialysis Nurse
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6266af
37. When and at what frequency is routine total chlorine testing performed per
FMC policy?: Prior to the initiation of treatment and at least every 4 hours.
38. The Reverse Osmosis (RO) machine runs _______ minutes before performing
any total chlorine testing.: 15
39. Total chlorine testing for a central water system must be performed and
documented ________ qualified staff members.: 2
40. A sample container is always rinsed ______ times before a sample is collected
for total chlorine testing.: 3
41. ________ ml is the correct amount of water to collect for total chlorine testing
when using RPC Ultra-Low Total Chlorine test strips.: 100
42 How long is the RPC Ultra-Low Total Chlorine Test strip immersed in the
sample?: 60 seconds
43. If a chlorine breakthrough occurs post GAC (Carbon) filter #1, what are the
several steps that are taken to ensure patients are safe from harm?: 1. Place all
machines in bypass 2. Repeat test (optional)
3. Immediately test after GAC#2/Carbon Tank #2
4. If results are less than 0.01, notify the Clinic Manager, MD, and ATOM/BMT
44. If total chlorine testing after the second carbon tank (post GAC Filter #2) shows
results above the action limit, what action is immediately taken?: Immediately stop
treatments!
45. _________ and ___________ are removed from water by the softener by the
process of ________ __________.: Calcium and Magnesium; ion exchange.
46. Water hardness is measure in parts per million (PPM). The FMS acceptable
limit for water hardness post softener is _______ PPM.: 20
47. Normally there are _____ water hardness tests are done daily.: 2
48. Hardness strips test for the presence of __________ and __________.: calcium
and magnesium
49. The RO must run for a minimum of ______ minutes prior to testing the water.:
15
50. Define "product water.": Water exiting the RO and that meets that AAMI standards
for water to be used for dialysis.
51. RO performance is measured by _________ ___________.: percent rejection
52. The full calibration of the TDS meter is required __________.: weekly
53. UV light is a form of ___________ ___________.: invisible radiation
54. Ultra Violet (UV) lights are effective when they have a wave length of _____
nanometers.: 254
