QMA Practice Test Questions and Answers A+

QMA Practice Test Questions and Answers A+ QMA Practice Test #1 (Lessons 1-7) - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #1 (Lessons 1-7) The QMA is prohibited from performing which of the folllowing tasks: 1)Assessing the resident's condition 2) Calling the physician 3) Administering a medication per nasogastric tube 4)Administering a medication by injection 5) All of the above 6) None of the above - ANSWER5) All of the above The QMA's scope of practice includes which of the following: 1) Observe and report to the facility's licensed nurse reactions and side effects to medications exhibited by a resident 2) Initiate oxygen per nasal cannula or non-sealing mask only in an emergency 3) Administer treatment to an advanced skin condition such as a stage III decubitus ulcer 4) Count and administer and document controlled substances 5) 1,2, 4 6) 1,2, 3 - ANSWER5) 1,2, 4 Assault and battery is defined as: 1) The threat to use force upon another person and the carrying out of the threat 2) A malicious statement or report 3) Omission or neglect of any reasonable precaution, care or action 4) Any written statement that damages a person's character 5) None of the above - ANSWER1) The threat to use force upon another person and the carrying out of the threat A QMA would be consider negligent if he/she: 1) Observes the legal rights of every resident 2) Follows facility policy and procedures 3) Fails to inform the licensed nurse of medication error 4) Follows the six rights of medication administration 5) All of the above - ANSWER3) Fails to inform the licensed nurse of medication error If a QMA makes a medication error, the following actions should be taken EXCEPT: 1) Report the error to a licensed nurse 2) Observe the resident for undesirable effects 3) Document the medication error 4) Contact the physician and family to inform them of the medication error 5) Truthfully report the error - ANSWER4) Contact the physician and family to inform them of the medication error Resident rights include which of the following: 1) The right to voice grievances 2) The right to refuse treatment and be informed of the consequences 3) The right to be free from abuse 4) Both 1 and 2 5) All of the above 6) None of the above - ANSWER5) All of the above The four elements of successful communication include which of the following: 1) Formulating the message 2) Sending the message 3) Receiving the message 4) Observing the feedback 5) All of the above 6) None of the above - ANSWERAll of the above Verbal communication is: 1) Written words 2)Spoken words 3) Facial expressions 4)Tone of voice 5) Both 1 and 2 6) All of the above - ANSWER5) Both 1 and 2 General interventions in response to any difficult behavior can include: 1) Remaining calm 2) Trying to confront the resident 3) Attempting to distract or redirect the resident 4) Approaching the resident from the side or back 5) Both 1 and 3 6) Both 2 and 4 - ANSWER5) both 1 and 3 Severe head trauma, stroke and brain disease can all cause: 1) temporary cognitive impairment 2) permanent cognitive impairment 3) both 1 and 2 4) none of the above - ANSWER2) permanent cognitive impairment Increased confusion and restlessness in late afternoon, evening and night are symptoms of: 1) catastrophic reaction 2) hallucinations 3) delusions 4) sundowning - ANSWER4) sundowning When interacting with an anxious resident, you should: 1) take resident to a group activity to help him/her calm down 2)Turn up the music to help the resident relax 3)Provide a quiet, calm environment, away from groups of people and activity 4) both 1 and 2 5) all of the above - ANSWER3)Provide a quiet, calm environment, away from groups of people and activity When interacting with a combative resident you should: 1) Run and call 911 2) Touch the resident to help calm him/her 3) Remain calm and in control 4) fight back 5) all of the above - ANSWER3)remain calm and in control Infection can be transmitted by: 1) air 2) contaminated soil and waer 3) objects 4) insects 5) all of the above 6) none of the above - ANSWER5) all of the above Standard precautions include all EXCEPT: 1) wearing gloves when indicated for resident care 2) wearing a gown, apron, mask and protective eye wear when splashing or contamination may occur 3) washing hands at appropriate times 4) using precautions only for those residents known to have infections - ANSWER4) using precautions only for those residents known to have infections A contagious disease of the liver caused by a virus and spread by exposure to infected blood, sexual contact or fecal/oral contact is called: 1) scabies 2) tuberculosis 3) hepatitis 4) MRSA - ANSWER3)Hepatitis A nosocomial infection is: 1) Caused by not washing your hands 2) An infection of the kidneys 3) An infection acquired while in the facility 4) An infection of the lungs - ANSWER3) An infection acquired while in the facility In a fire emergency you should first: 1) Remove residents from the immediate area of the fire to a place of safety 2) Activate the alarm 3) Extinguish the fire 4) Contain the fire - ANSWER1) Remove residents from the immediate area of the fire to a place of safety If a resident is choking and a complete blockage of the airway is present you should first 1) Call 911 2) Use the Heimlich maneuver 3) Start chest compressions 4) None of the above 5) All of the above - ANSWER2) use the Heimlich maneuver If a resident falls you should first: 1) Call for help immediately 2) Try to stop the fall 3) Keep the resident still until the nurse assesses 4) Reassure the resident - ANSWER1)Call for help immediately When vital parts of the body (brain, heart and lungs) do not get enough blood and the resident has a rapid heart beat, pallor, perspiration, light headedness, chills, fainting, low blood pressure, and confusion this is called: 1) Hemorrhage 2) Shock 3) Cardiac arrest 4) CVA - ANSWER2) Shock If a resident's heart function and circulation stop and the resident is unresponsive, there is no chest movement or pulse, pupils are dilated and fixed, and skin is cyanotic, the resident may be experiencing: 1) Hemorrhage 2) Shock 3) Cardiac arrest 4) CVA - ANSWER3) Cardiac arrest If a resident has a seizure you should: 1) remove objects from the vicinity 2) Loosen the resident's clothing 3) Never restrain the resident 4) All of the above - ANSWER4) All of the above Poisoning can be prevented by: 1) Never using anything from an unlabeled container 2) Keeping toxic substances and cleaning supplies locked and out of the reach of residents 3) Locking medication carts when left unattended 4) All of the above - ANSWER4) all of the above 25) To use a fire extinguisher you must first: 1)Aim the nozzle 2) Squeeze the handle 3) Sweep from side to side 4) pull the pin - ANSWER4) Pull the pin QMA Practice Test #2 (Lessons 8-11) - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #2 (Lessons 8-11) 1. Something that serves to relieve or alleviate symptoms, but not cure is called: 1) Pruritus 2) Stomatitis 3) Palliative 4) Apnea - ANSWER3) Palliative 2. The most common complications associated with terminal illness include: 1) Sleeping 2) Lack of appetite 3) Nausea and vomiting 4) stomatitis 5) All of the above - ANSWER4) All of the above 3. Which of the following is true about pain? 1) There will always be visible signs of pain 2) Everyone always fells the same intensity of pain from the same stimuli 3) We adapt to our discomforts, leading to periods of very minimal signs of discomfort. Lack of pain expression does not mean lack of pain 4) None of the above - ANSWER3) We adapt to our discomforts, leading to periods of very minimal signs of discomfort. Lack of pain expression does not mean lack of pain 4. The study of medications is called: 1) Medicology 2) Pharmacology 3) Pharmodynamics 4) None of the above - ANSWER2) Pharmacology 5. The official name of a medication is known as the: 1) Chemical name 2) Trade name 3) Brand name 4) generic name - ANSWER4) generic name 6. The systemic effect: 1) Affects the area of the body where medication is applied 2) Affects the entire body 3) Both 1 and 2 4) none of the above - ANSWER2) Affects the entire body 7. An adverse effect is defined as: 1) Outcome of medication use that is not intended; the action or the effect of a medication other than what is desired 2) An undesired side effect or toxicity 3) Desired effect 4) Build up of a substance that could lead to toxicity - ANSWER2) An undesired side effect or toxicity 8. Factors that influence medication action include: 1) Dosage strength 2) Presence of food in the stomach 3) disease state of the resident 4) none of the above 5) all of the above - ANSWER5) all of the above 9. Rationale for administration of medications include: 1)Cure illness/treat disease 2) relieve symptoms 3) prevent illness 4) Ad in diagnosis of illness 5) both 1 and 2 6) all of the above - ANSWER6) all of the above 10. Legend medications are: 1) medications that may be addictive 2) Medications that can only be obtained with a prescription filled by a licensed pharmacist 3) Over-the-counter medications 4) All of the above - ANSWER2) Medications that can only be obtained with a prescription filled by a licensed pharmacist 11. The QMA can do all of the following EXCEPT: 1) Prepare medications for administration 2) Receive orders from the physician 3) Administer medication and document administration 4) Observe, document and report to the licensed nurse reactions to medication - ANSWER2) Receive orders from the physician 12. Absorption occurs when medication moves from the site of administration into the bloodstream. Route of administration affects absorption. Which route is the slowest to be absorbed? 1) Sublingual 2) Injection 3) Oral 4) Inhaled - ANSWER3) Oral 13. The shorter the half life of a medication the: 1) Less often a medication must be given to maintain a constant action 2) More often a medication must be given to maintain a constant action 3) Longer it takes to be excreted from the body 4) None of the above - ANSWER2) more often a medication must be given to maintain a constant action 14. The process by which a substance is changed into a form that is more easily excreted by the body is: 1) absorption 2) distribution 3) metabolism 4) excretion - ANSWER3) metabolism 15. Most medications are metabolized in the: 1) kidneys 2) lungs 3) liver 4) intestines - ANSWER3) liver 16. Factors related to aging which may influence medication effectiveness include: 1) Decrease in lung capacity 2) Loss of muscle size 3) Increase in body fat 4) All of the above 5) none of the above - ANSWER4) all of the above 17. Which of the following is a true statement? 1) Enteric coated tablets may be crushed 2) Capsules may be opened or crushed 3) Injectable medication is to be administered only by a licensed nurse or physician 4) Unit dose packaging is a one week or one month supply of medication in a vial or bottle - ANSWER3) Injectable medication is to be administered only by a licensed nurse or physician 18. The label of a medication container should include all of the following EXCEPT: 1) Resident's full name 2) Prescribing physician name 3) Pharmacy prescription number 4) Name of the nursing facility 5) Name, strength and amount of the medication dispensed - ANSWER4) Name of the nursing facility 19. Only authorized personnel may have access to the medication room unattended which includes: 1) Licensed nurse 2) QMA 3) Maintenance man 4) Administrator 5) Both 1 and 2 - ANSWER5) Both 1 and 2 20. When administering medications from a medication cart you should: 1) Take it everywhere you go 2) Lock the cart when not attended or within visual range 3) Have someone else push the cart so your hands are free 4) None of the above 5) All of the above - ANSWER2) Lock the cart when not attended or within visual range 21. An _________________ is utilized to start a newly ordered medication that needs to be administered immediately or in the event a currently ordered medication is out of supply 1) Emergency Supply (ES) 2) Emergency Drug Kit (EDK) 3) Overflow supply (OS) 4) None of the above - ANSWER2) Emergency Drug Kit (EDK) 22. Each pharmacist and physician has a special number which allows close monitoring by what agency of all controlled medications prescribed: 1) The Drug Task Force (DTF) 2) The Drug Investigation Bureau (DIB) 3) The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) 4) The Drug Traffic Enforcement (DTE) - ANSWER3) The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) 23. Controlled substances are medications classified under the law and have ________________ classifications. 1) I 2) III 3) IV 4) II 5) V - ANSWER5) V 24. Schedule I, II, III, and IV medications must be counted: 1) At the beginning and end of each shift 2) By two licensed nurses or one licensed nurse and one QMA 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of the above - ANSWER3) Both 1 and 2 25. Should a QMA discover the medication count i wrong or that pills are missing he/she should: 1) Ignore it, knowing that it will be found on the next shift 2) Call 911 3) Immediately notify the nurse for further investigation 4) Call the DON and administrator - ANSWER3) Immediately notify the nurse for further investigation QMA Practice Test #3 (Lessons 12-14) - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #3 (Lessons 12-14) 1. A ___________________ is required before any member of the health care team can administer a medication 1) Nurse's order 2) Pharmacist's order 3) Physician's order 4) Director of Nursing's approval - ANSWER3) Physician's order 2. If a physician gives a nurse a medication order by telephone, he/she must sign the order: 1) Within 24 hours 2) Within 48 hours 3) On his/her next visit to the facility 4) Within 1 year of the telephone order - ANSWER3) On his/her next visit to the facility 3. Verbal or telephone order from the physician may be taken by a: 1) Licensed nurse 2) Pharmacist 3) QMA 4) Both 1and 3 5) Both 1 and 2 - ANSWER5) Both 1 and 2 4. If a medication order is unclear, the QMA has the responsibility to: 1) Question any medication order he/she is not comfortable following 2) Ask a licensed nurse in the facility to clarify before administering the medications 3) Call the physician for a clarification 4) Both 1 and 2 5) All of the above - ANSWER4) Both 1 and 2 5. Orders that are received from the physician to be carried out immediately are called: 1) PRN orders 2) Verbal orders 3) STAT orders 4) Routine orders - ANSWER3) STAT orders 6. Medications given as needed are called: 1) Verbal orders 2) STAT orders 3) PRN orders 4) Routine orders - ANSWER3) PRN orders 7. If there is a discrepancy between the dosage on the pharmacy label and the MAR (medication administration record) the QMA should: 1) Call the pharmacy 2) Call the physician 3) Notify the licensed nurse 4) All of the above - ANSWER3) Notify the licensed nurse 8. When preparing to administer medications per the orders of the physician, the QMA must follow the ________________________________ of medication administration. 1) 3 rights 2) 5 rights 3) 7 rights 4) 6 rights - ANSWER2) 5 rights 9) MATCHING - What does gtt mean - ANSWERdrop 9) MATCHING - What does hs mean - ANSWERat bedtime 9) MATCHING - What does prn mean - ANSWERas needed 9) MATCHING - What does qid mean - ANSWER4x a day 9) MATCHING - What does ad lib mean - ANSWERas desired 9) MATCHING - What does stat mean - ANSWERimmediately 9) MATCHING - What does bid mean - ANSWER2x a day 9) MATCHING - What does ac mean - ANSWERbefore meals 9) MATCHING - What does cc mean - ANSWERcubic centimeter 9) MATCHING - What does po mean - ANSWERby mouth 10) MATCHING PT2 - What does cardio mean - ANSWERheart 10) MATCHING PT2 - What does emesis mean - ANSWERvomiting 10) MATCHING PT2 - What does uro mean - ANSWERurine 10) MATCHING PT2 - What does brady mean - ANSWERslow 10) MATCHING PT2 - What does pneumo mean - ANSWERair, lungs 10) MATCHING PT2 - What does cyto mean - ANSWERcell 11. A system of measurement that is less precise than others is called the ________________ system 1) Facility 2) Apothecary 3) Metric 4) Household - ANSWER4) Household 12. An old English system of measure brought to America by the colonists is called the ___________ system 1) Facility 2) Apothecary 3) Metric 4) Household - ANSWER2) Apothecary 13. The grain and dram are units of measure from which system of measurement? 1) Facility 2) Apothecary 3) Metric 4) Household - ANSWER2) Apothecary 14. The drop and teaspoon are units of measure from which system of measurement? 1) Facility 2) Apothecary 3) Metric 4) Household - ANSWER4) Household 15. Which system of measurement is the most common measurement system in the medical field? 1) Facility 2) Apothecary 3) Metric 4) Household - ANSWER3) Metric 16. One teaspoon equals ___________________ milliliters. 1) 1 2) 4 3) 6 4) 5 - ANSWER4) 5 17. 30 cubic centimeters equals ________________ ounce(s) 1) 1 2) 5 3) 3 4) 6 - ANSWER1) 1 18. One liter equals ___________ milliliters 1) 2000 2) 5000 3) 3000 4) 1000 - ANSWER4) 1000 19. A medication ordered qd should be given _________________. 1) Twice a day 2) The same time everyday 3) 4x a day 4) 3x a day - ANSWER2) The same time every day 20. The physician writes an order for Thorazine 50mg PO PRN q4h for increased agitation. Which of the following describes what is written? 1) Thorazine 50 micrograms as needed for increased agitation 2) Thorazine 50 milligrams by mouth as needed every 4 hours for increased agitation 3) Thorazine 50 milligrams by mouth as needed 4 times per day for increased agitation 4) None of the above - ANSWER2) Thorazine 50 milligrams by mouth as needed every 4 hours for increased agitation QMA Practice Test #4 (Lessons 15-16) - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #4 (Lessons 15-16) 1. Medication used to treat and prevent nausea and vomiting are called: 1) Antihistamines 2) Antiemetics 3)Antacids 4) Antiflatulants - ANSWER2) Antiemetics 2. The organ located in the upper left of the abdomen, below the diaphragm, is the: 1) Gallbladder 2) Large intestine 3) Small intestine 4) Stomach - ANSWER4) Stomach 3. Bulk-producing laxatives must be given with sufficient ________________. 1) Fluids 2) Food 3) Fiber 4) Enzymes - ANSWER1) Fluids 4. The function of the alimentary canal is to: 1)Provide a passageway for food 2) Provide the entrance for food 3) Aid in the digestion of food 4) Complete the digestion of food - ANSWER1) Provide a passageway for food 5. Depending on the type and amount, food remains in the stomach an average of how many hours? 1) 1-2 2) 3-5 3) 6-8 4) 9-12 - ANSWER2) 3-5 hours 6. What aids in the absorption of fats? 1) Bile 2) Saliva 3) Insulin 4) Ptyalin - ANSWER1) Bile 7. Which of the following is NOT a change in the digestive system due to aging? 1) Constipation 2) Diarrhea 3) Difficulty swallowing 4) Dry mouth - ANSWER2) Diarrhea 8. Constipation can be caused by: 1) Infections 2) Allergy 3) Inactivity 4) Weight loss - ANSWER3) Inactivity 9. When administering antacids, you should monitor the resident for: 1) Constipation 2) Diarrhea 3) Loss of appetite 4) Amount and consistency of stools - ANSWER4) Amount and consistency of stools 10. An irritation causing a sore to the lining of the stomach or duodenum is called a(n): 1) Hepatitis 2) Ulcer 3) Dyspepsia 4) Cirrhosis - ANSWER2) Ulcer 11) MATCHING - a) Amphojel b) Milk of magnesia c) Pepcid d) Phenergan e) Syrup of Inecac f) Paregoric g) Senokot h) Citrucel 1) Antiemetic 2) Cathartic 3) Anatacid 4) Saline laxative 5) Opiate 6) bulk laxative 7) Anti-ulcer 8) Emetic - ANSWERa - 3 b - 4 c - 7 d - 1 e - 8 f - 5 g - 2 h - 6 12. Smooth muscle: 1) Is found only in the heart 2) Is the body's most abundant tissue comprimising about 23% of a woman's body weight and about 40% of a man's body weight 3) Surrounds, or is part of, the internal organs 4) Is an involuntary muscle 5) Both 3 and 4 - ANSWER5) both 3 and 4 13. The soft center part of the bone is where the red blood cells are manufactured and is called: 1) Cartilage 2) Ligaments 3) Bone marrow 4) Tendons - ANSWER3) Bone marrow 14. A condition characterized by a loss of bone density causing bones to become more brittle and easily fractured is called: 1) Muscle spasm 2) Muscle sprain 3) Gout 4) Osteoporosis - ANSWER4) Osteoporosis 15. Effects of the aging process on the musculoskeletal system include: 1) Increased adipose tissue 2) Decreased callogen formation and muscle mass 3) Decreased height 4) All of the above 5) None of the above - ANSWER4) All of the above 16. A sudden and violent tightening of a muscle is called: 1) Muscle strain 2) Muscle spasm 3) Muscle sprain 4) Gout - ANSWER2) Muscle spasm 17. Medications used to decrease inflammation, treat arthritis, dermatitis and chronic respiratory conditions are classified as: 1) Antidiarrheal 2) Anti-inflammatory 3) Anti-emetic 4) None of the above - ANSWER2) Anti-inflammatory 18. A resident receiving steroid medications should be observed for: 1) Signs of infection 2) Change in urine glucose or fasting blood sugar 3) Withdrawal symptoms if stopped abruptly 4) All of the above - ANSWER4) ALl of the above 19. Observing the resident for nonverbal signs of musculoskeletal pain would include which of the following: 1) Facial gestures 2) Tightening of the muscles 3) Limping 4) Favoring an area of the body 5) All of the above - ANSWER5) All of the above 20. MATCHING a) Tylenol b) Decadron c) motrin d) Naprosyn e) Flexeril f) Demerol 1) NSAIA 2) Anti-inflammatory 3) Muscle relaxant 4) Analgesic - ANSWERa - 4 b - 2 c - 4 or 1 d - 4 or 1 e - 3 f - 4 QMA Practice Test #5 (Lessons 17-18) - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #5 (Lessons 17-18) A contagious skin condition caused by mites that burrow under the skin is called 1) Keratitis 2) Pediculosis 3) PSoriasis 4) Scabies - ANSWER4) Scabies 2) A Contagious infestation of the hair and body caused by the lice is called 1) Keratitis 2) Pediculosis 3)Psoriasis 4) Scabies - ANSWER2) Pediculosis 3) Continuous pressure on body area causes: 1) Psoriasis 2) Keratitis 3) Decubitus ulcers 4) Pediculosis - ANSWER3) Decubitus ulcers 4) When applying local anti-infectives, you must wear: 1) Gloves 2) A mask 3) A gown 4) Gloves and a mask - ANSWER1) Gloves 5) Change in the skin evident with aging is that it: 1) Tears easily 2) Becomes tougher 3) Becomes more oily 4) Becomes thicker - ANSWER1) Tears easily 6) An example of an anti-inflammatory steroid is: 1) Kwell 2) Neocin 3) Aftate 4) Cordran - ANSWER4) Cordran 7) Debridement medications can be applied by: 1) QMA 2) Physician only 3) Registered Nurse only 4) Licensed personnel only - ANSWER4) Licensed personnel only 8) An inflammation of the mucous membrane of the eye is called: 1) Conjunctivitis 2) Cataract 3) Glaucoma 4) Keratitis - ANSWER1) Conjunctivitis 9) An obstruction or the overproduction of fluid in the eye which results in increased pressure within the eye is called: 1) Conjunctivitis 2) Cataract 3) Keratitis 4) Glaucoma - ANSWER4) Glaucoma 10) The medications used to treat glaucoma: 1) Increase intraocular pressure 2) Decrease intraocular pressure 3) Maintain the current intraocular pressure 4) Do not affect the intraocular pressure - ANSWER2) Decrease intraocular pressure 11) A chronic disturbance of the inner ear is called: 1) Otitis media 2) Meniere's disease 3) Swimmer's ear 4) Earitis - ANSWER2) Meniere's disease 12) Medications used to treat glaucoma are called: 1) Miotics 2) Mydriatrics 3) Myoptics 4) Lubricants - ANSWER1) Miotics 13) Where should miotics be placed when administered? 1) Directly on the eye 2) Inside the lower eyelid 3) In the corner of the eye 4) Inside the upper eyelid - ANSWER2) Inside the lower eyelid 14) Cortisporin Otic would be used to treat: 1) Conjunctivitis 2) Cataracts 3) Otitis media 4) Swimmer's ear - ANSWER3 and 4 Otitis media and Swimmer's ear 15) Ear wax control agents should not be used if the ear is: 1) Draining 2) reddened 3) Itching 4) sore - ANSWER1) draining 16) The inability to empty the bladder is a symptom of: 1) Incontinence 2) Cystitis 3) Nephritis 4) Urinary retention - ANSWER4) Urinary retention 17) An example of a diuretic is: 1) Furadantin 2) Macrodantin 3) Aldactone 4) Pyridium - ANSWER3) Aldactone 18) When administering diuretics, the resident must be observed for symptoms of: 1) Decreased potassium levels 2) Increased potassium levels 3) Decreased sodium levels 4) Increased sodium levels - ANSWER1) Decreased potassium levels 19) All blood passes through the ______________ several times each day for cleaning. 1) Kidneys 2) Ureters 3) Bladder 4) Urethra - ANSWER1) Kidneys 20) An inflammation of the urinary bladder is called... 1) Pyelonephritis 2) Cystitis 3) Incontinence 4) Nephritis - ANSWER2) Cystitis QMA Practice Test #6 (Lessons 19-20) Cardiovascular system and respiratory system - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #6 (Lessons 19-20) 1) The vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called 1) Capillaries 2) Veins 3) Arteries 4) Arterioles - ANSWER2) Veins 2) What type of cell fights infection? 1) RBC 2) WBC 3) Platelets 4) All cells fight infection - ANSWER2) WBC 3) A lack of adequate oxygen supply to the heart causes: 1) Angina pectoris 2) Myocardial infarction 3) Coronary occulsion 4) Myocardial ischemia - ANSWER4) Myocardial ischemia 4) Edema in the feet and legs is a symptoms of 1) Angina pectoris 2) Coronary occlusion 3) CHF 4) Arteriosclerosis - ANSWER3) CHF (Congestive heart failure) 5) A build-up of plaque deposits in the blood vessels is called: 1) Arteriosclerosis 2) Coronary occlusion 3) CHF 4) Arteriosclerosis - ANSWER1) Arteriosclerosis 6) Before administering cardiotonic drugs, you must: 1) Obtain the resident's blood pressure 2) Obtain the resident's respiratory rate 3) Listen to the resident's heart and lungs 4) Obtain the resident's pulse - ANSWER1) Obtain the resident's blood pressure 7) Hypertension means ______________ systolic pressure and _____________ diastolic pressure 1) low, low 2) low, high 3) high, high 4) high, low - ANSWER3) high, low 8) Inderal is given for: 1) Arrhythmias 2) Hypotension 3) Hypertension 4) CHF - ANSWER3) Hypertension 9) Which of the following would be given to treat hypertension? 1) Inderal 2) Aldomet 3) Pronestyl 4) Lanoxin - ANSWER1) Inderal 10) The action of diuretics are to ___________ BP and ________ urinary output 1) increase, increase 2) increase, decrease 3) decrease, increase 4) decrease, decrease - ANSWER3) decrease, increase 11) Residents taking antihypertensives myst have their _________________ checked each week 1) heart rate 2) pulse 3) respiratory rate 4) BP - ANSWER4) BP or blood pressure 12) Anticoagulants are used to treat: 1) hypotension 2) thrombophlebitis 3) coronary occlusion 4) angina pectoris - ANSWER2) thrombophlebitis 13) An adverse affect of administering anticoagulants is: 1) decreased bleeding 2) chest pain 3) dizziness 4) increased bleeding - ANSWER4) increased bleeding 14) Symptoms of pulmonary emphysema include which of the following? 1) Barrel chest 2) Pursed lip breathing 3) Cyanosis of extremities 4) All of the above - ANSWER4) All of the above 15) Which of the following are used to treat allergic reactions 1) Antitussives 2) Antihistamines 3) Bronchodilators 4) Expectorants - ANSWER2) Antihistamines 16) Residents who have chronic lung disease should have oxygen administered at: 1) Higher liter flows 2) Lower liter flows 3) The liter flow that makes him/her feel comfortable 4) Liter flows ordered by the nurse - ANSWER4) Liter flows ordered by the nurse 17) Which of the following depresses cough? 1) Expectorants 2) Bronchodilators 3) Antitussives 4) Antihistamines - ANSWER3) Antitussives 18) The average respiratory rate for an adult is: 1) 12-16 2) 15-20 3) 16-20 4) 10-14 - ANSWER1) 12-16 19) The function of the respiratory system is to: 1) Bring in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide 2) Remove oxygen and bring in carbon dioxide 3) Bring in oxygen 4) Remove carbon dioxide - ANSWER1) Bring in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide 20) Dimetapp is an example of a(n): 1) Expectorant 2) Antihistamine 3) Bronchodilator 4) Nasal decongestant - ANSWER1) Expectorant 21) Actifed is an example of a(n): 1) Expectorant 2) Antihistamine 3) Bronchodilator 4) Combination product - ANSWER4) Combination product 22) Rifadin is an example of a(n): 1) Expectorant 2) Antihistamine 3) Tuberculin medication 4) Combination product - ANSWER3) Tuberculin medication 23) Sinutab is an example of a(n): 1) Expectorant 2) Antihistamine 3) Tuberculin medication 4) Combination product - ANSWER4) Combination product 24)Proventil is an example of a(n): 1) Expectorant 2) Bronchodilator 3) Antihistamine 4) Antitussive - ANSWER2) Bronchodilator 25) Codeine is an example of a(n): 1) Bronchodilator 2) Antitussive 3) Expectorant 4) Antihistamine - ANSWER2) Antitussive QMA Practice Test #7 (Lesson 21-22) Endocrine and M/F Reproductive - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #7 (Lesson 21-22) Endocrine and M/F Reproductive 1) Symptoms of hypoglycemia include: 1) Drowsiness 2) Perspiration 3) Pallor 4) All of the above - ANSWER4) All of the above 2) Which of the following is not an oral hypoglycemic medication? 1) Glucotrol 2) Synthroid 3) Diabinese 4) Glucophage - ANSWER1) Glucotrol 3) The master endocrine gland is the ___________ gland. 1) Thyroid 2) Parathyroid 3) Pituitary 4) Pineal - ANSWER3) Pituitary 4) The Islets of Langerhans produce and secrete what hormones? 1) Parahormone 2) Corticosteroids 3) Insulin 4) Adrenaline - ANSWER3) Insulin 5) Partial or complete failure of the islets of Langerhans to produce insulin causes: 1) Renal failure 2) Diabetes 3) Insulin shock 4) Diabetic coma - ANSWER2) Diabetes 6) Ketostix are used to: 1) Test urine for sugar and ketones 2) Test urine for protein 3) Test urine for ketones 4) Test urine for sugar - ANSWER3) Test urine for ketones 7) Diabetics need to be monitored for: 1) FLuid intake 2) Fluid output 3) Diet intake 4) Amount of desserts eaten - ANSWER3) Diet intake 8) One adverse affect of a thyroid hormone is: 1) Moon face 2) Hair loss 3) Fluid retention 4) Chest pain - ANSWER1) Moon face 9) If the resident's breathe smell's fruity, you should suspect: 1) Diabetes 2) Renal failure 3) Hyperglycemia 4) Hypoglycemia - ANSWER3) Hyperglycemia 10) Underproduction of the hormone thyroxin that results in decreased metabolic rate is called: 1) Hyperthyroidism 2) Hyperinsulinism 3) Hypothyroidism 4) Hyperglycemia - ANSWER3) Hypothyroidism 11) Effects of the aging process on the endocrine system include: 1) Tendency toward diabetes 2) Water retention 3) Slower metabolism 4) All of the above - ANSWER4) All of the above 12) Deltasone is an example of a(n): 1) Adrenal cortical steroid 2) Thyroid hormone 3) Estrogen 4) Androgen - ANSWER1) Adrenal cortical steroid 13) An adverse affect of adrenal cortical steroids includes: 1) Moon face 2) Night sweats 3) Hair loss 4) Thin, shiny skin 5) All of the above - ANSWER5) All of the above 14) Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH) is: 1) A tumor 2) An enlargement of the mammary gland 3) An enlargement of the prostate gland 4) Cancerous - ANSWER3) An enlargement of the prostate gland 15) The hormone responsible for male secondary sex characteristics is: 1) Thyroxin 2) Estrogen 3) Androgen 4) Insulins - ANSWER3) Androgen 16) The hormone responsible for female secondary sex characteristics is: 1) Insulin 2) Thyroxin 3) Androgen 4) Estrogen - ANSWER4) Estrogen 17) Menopause usually occurs between the ages: 1) 40-50 2) 45-52 3) 60-70 4) 55-60 - ANSWER2) 45-52 18) Premarin is an example of a(n): 1) Thyroid replacement hormone 2) Male replacement hormone 3) Female replacement hormone 4) Oral contraceptive - ANSWER3) Female replacement hormone 19) Depotest is an example of a(n): 1) Thyroid replacement hormone 2) Male replacement hormone 3) Female replacement hormone 4) Oral contraceptive - ANSWER2) Male replacement hormone 20) Effects of the aging process on the male reproductive system can cause: 1) Reduced testosterone production 2) Decrease in sperm production 3) Prostate enlargement 4) All of the above - ANSWER4) All of the above QMA Practice Test #8 (Lesson 23-24) Nervous system and Nutrition/Nutritional disorders - ANSWERQMA Practice Test #8 (Lesson 23-24) Nervous system and Nutrition/Nutritional disorders 1) The ____________ side of the brain controls the _____________ side of the body. 1) Right, right 2) Right, left 3) Left, left 4) Right, both - ANSWER2) Right, left 2) One change in the nervous system as a result of aging is the appearance of: 1) Tangles that affect memory 2) More gray matter 3) more white matter 4) Greater thermoregulation - ANSWER1) Tangles that affect memory 3) Which of the following would be given to relieve the symptoms of Parkinson's disease? 1) Luminal 2) Dalmane 3) Sinemet 4) Dilantin - ANSWER3) Sinemet 4) A disease caused by an infection of nerve of brain cells is: 1) Parkinson's disease 2) Huntington's Disease 3) Tic Douloureux 4) Guillain-Barre Syndrome - ANSWER4) Guillain-Barre Syndrome 5) Ritalin is a(n): 1) Depressant 2) Cerebral stimulant 3) Analgesic 4) Hypnotic - ANSWER2) Cerebral stimulant 6) Depakote is a(n): 1) Depressant 2) Analgesic 3) Anticonvulsant 4) Anti-Parkinson medication - ANSWER3) Anticonvulsant 7) A mild form of epileptic attack with the absence of seizures is called: 1) Grand mal 2) Petit mal 3) Clonic/tonic 4) Generalized seizure - ANSWER2) Petit mal 8) Which medication classification depresses abnormal neuronal discharges in the CNS? 1) Anti-parkinson 2) Anticonvulsant 3) Analgesic 4) Hypnotic - ANSWER2) Anticonvulsant 9) Which of the following nutrients build and repair body tissues? 1) Carbohydrates 2) Fats 3) Proteins 4) Vitamins - ANSWER3) Proteins 10) Low iron in the blood due to the inability of the stomach lining to absorb vitamin B is the cause of what condition? 1) Iron deficiency anemia 2) Pernicious anemia 3) Osteoporosis 4) Arthritis - ANSWER2) Pernicious anemia 11) Hypokalemia may be treated by eating which of the following? 1) Apples 2) Banana 3) Grapes 4) Oranges - ANSWER2) Bananas 12) Which of the following is given in combination with INH therapy? 1) B1 2) B6 3) B9 4) C - ANSWER2) B6 13) Which of the following may be given to treat burns? 1) B1 2) B6 3) B9 4) C - ANSWER4) Vitamin C 14) An adverse effect of bronchospasms is associated with which of the following? 1) B1 2) B6 3) B9 4) C - ANSWER3) B9 15) Which of the following is used to treat Meniere's disease? 1) Nicotinic acid 2) Folic acid 3) Ascorbic acid 4) Iron - ANSWER1) Nicotinic acid QMA Pratice Test #9 (Lessons 25-28) Immunity, Inflammation/Infection, Malignant disease, Psychotic conditions, organic brain syndrome, and psychoactive medications - ANSWERQMA Pratice Test #9 (Lessons 25-28) Immunity, Inflammation/Infection, Malignant disease, Psychotic conditions, organic brain syndrome, and psychoactive medications 1) Immunity acquired by having a disease is called: 1) Active immunity 2) Artificial active 3) Passive immunity 4) Artificial passive - ANSWER1) Active immunity 2) Immunity acquired by passing antibodies from a mother's bloodstream to a baby's bloodstream is called: 1) Active immunity 2) Artificial active 3) Passive immunity 4) Artificial passive - ANSWER3) Passive immunity 3) AIDS is transmitted by: 1) Sexual intercourse 2) Shared needles 3) Infected mothers passing on to the fetus 4) Blood transfusions 5) All of the above - ANSWER5) All of the above 4) An immunization would be given for which of the following? 1) Bursitis 2) Strept throat 3) Pneumonia 4) Tetanus - ANSWER4) tetanus 5) Symptoms of infection may include: 1) Inflammation 2) Increased body temperature 3) Pain 4) Discharge 5) All of the above - ANSWER5) All of the above 6) Medications that prevent the growth of microorganisms (germs) are called: 1) Antiseptics 2) Antibiotics 3) Anti-inflammatory steroids 4) Disinfectants - ANSWER1) Antiseptics 7) What classification of medications is utilized to kill or prevent the growth of specific germs? 1) Antiseptics 2) Antibiotics 3) Anti-inflammatory steroids 4) Disinfectants - ANSWER2) Antibiotics 8) Antibiotics must be given at the exact same time ordered to: 1) Make certain the last dose has been completely absorbed 2) Stimulate the body to produce its own antibodies 3) Maintain an adequate amount in the blood at all times 4) Keep the new dose from being absorbed too rapidly - ANSWER3) Maintain an adequate amount in the blood at all times 9) Which of the following is NOT one of the early symptoms of cancer? 1) A sore that does not heal 2) Prolonged hoarseness 3) Change in bowel habits 4) Change in appetite - ANSWER4) Change in appetite 10) Medications that kill or slow the growth of cancer cells are called: 1) Antineoplastics 2) Antibiotics 3) Antitussives 4) Antiseptics - ANSWER1) Antineoplastics CONTINUES............