Sarah Michelle AANP Board Exam - Crash Course Review – Question and Answers

Sarah Michelle AANP Board Exam - Crash Course Review – Question and Answers lifestyle modifications - Correct Answerhow will you treat stage one HTN with ASCVD risk of 10%? medications - Correct Answerhow will you treat stage one HTN with ASCVD risk of 10%? 130-139/80-89 - Correct Answeraccording to the AHA/ACC guidelines, stage one HTN is defined as BP of _______-_______/_____-_____ 140, 90 - Correct Answeraccording to the AHA/ACC guidelines, stage two HTN is defined as BP of _______/_____ lifestyle modifications - Correct Answerthe mainstay of hyperlipidemia treatment, regardless of medication use as well, is _____________________ ________________________ strep pneumoniae - Correct Answerthe typical culprit of bacterial pneumonia is ___________ _________________________ bacterial, viral - Correct Answer________________________ pneumonia tends to be more significant/serious while _______________ pneumonia tends to be more of a "walking" pneumonia cough suppressants - Correct Answerdo not given pneumonia patients ____________ _______________________, can give them expectorants 8 - Correct Answerfollow-up CXR from pneumonia should be performed around the ________ week mark CAT assessment (COPD assessment test) - Correct Answerfunctional assessment tool that we can use to help us decide how much COPD is affecting our patients daily life, a score 10 is considered significant day to day disruption spirometry, 0.70 - Correct AnswerCOPD diagnosis is confirmed with ________________________, an FEV1/FVC ratio score of less than ___________ indicates COPD dyspnea, sputum, purulence - Correct Answerwhat 3 things must be present in order to diagnose a COPD exacerbation? 1) increased _____________________ 2) increased __________________ production 3) increased sputum __________________________ steroids - Correct Answertreatment options for Bell's palsy include __________________ (started within 72 hours of symptom onset), antivirals may be utilized depending upon the patient, and lubricating eye ointment should always be prescribed to avoid corneal abrasions essential tremor - Correct Answertremor that worsens with intent, managed with beta blockers (propanolol) and regular physical activity MS (multiple sclerosis) - Correct Answerdemyelination occurring in the CNS, very unpredictable, most patients go through remissions and exacerbations, commonly diagnosed between ages 20-40 trigeminal neuralgia - Correct Answerpatients with MS are at an increased risk of developing what condition? absence seizures - Correct Answertype of seizure commonly diagnosed in childhood characterized by brief loss of consciousness lasting around 20-30 seconds, these children are often accused of daydreaming, most will outgrow this condition tonic clonic seizures - Correct Answeralso known as convulsive seizures, typically last around 1-3 minutes, biggest concern is safety serotonin syndrome - Correct Answerthis condition occurs when there is too much circulating serotonin, symptoms include shivering, seizures, agitation, tachycardia, tremors and possible death GAD7 scale - Correct Answeranxiety screening tool lupus, 4 - Correct Answerthis condition, ________________, is often known as the "great mimicker" because the presentation is so vague, in order to diagnose this condition the patient must have ______ of 11 of the following criteria: -malar rash -discoid rash -photosensitivity -oral/nasal ulcers -non-erosive arthritis -cardiopulmonary complaints -renal complaints -neurological concerns -immunological disorder -hematological disorders -positive ANA test childbearing, African - Correct Answerlupus is most commonly seen in women of __________________________ age and in __________________ Americans rheumatology - Correct Answerwhich specialty should we refer lupus patients to? myxedema coma - Correct AnswerLife-threatening condition associated with hypothyroidism, symptoms include abnormally low body temperature, swelling (including tongue thickening), confusion, lethargy and difficulty breathing. Can be precipitated by lithium and amiodarone HIV - Correct Answer____________ is diagnosed through an HIV1/HIV2 antigen/antibody immunoassay, if this test is positive than order an HIV1/HIV2 antibody differentiation immunoassay, we no longer use the western blot CD4 - Correct Answer____________ count must be monitored after a patients has been diagnosed with HIV 350 - Correct Answerantiretroviral drugs should be initiated at a CD4 count of ___________ or less increased - Correct Answerpain from a gastric ulcer is ____________________ by eating relieved - Correct Answerpain from a duodenal ulcer is ________________ by eating and then occurs 1-3 hours later fecal antigen - Correct Answerthe best test for diagnosing H. pylori is the _____________ _____________________ test, can also use the urea breath test but patients must stop taking H2s or PPIs for 2 weeks before test or the serum antibody test but if they have ever had H. pylori in the past this test will be positive viral - Correct Answermost cases of gastroenteritis are ________________ in nature fluoroquinolones, macrolides, flagyl - Correct Answertreatment of bacterial gastroenteritis caused by salmonella, shigella, E. coli and campylobacter should be with _______________________ or _____________________ while treatment of bacterial gastroenteritis caused by giardia should be with __________________ 90, 60-89, 30-59, 15-29, 15 - Correct Answerstage 1 CKD: GFR _______ stage 2 CKD: GFR ______-______ stage 3 CKD: GFR ______-______ stage 4 CKD: GFR ______-______ stage 5 CKD: GFR ______