Maryville University NURS 623 Exam 1 Latest
Update 2024-2025 Actual Exam 100 Questions
and 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed
A+
ABCDE of malignant melanoma - CORRECT ANSWER: A" stands for asymmetrical.
Does the mole or spot have an irregular shape
"B" stands for border. Is the border irregular or jagged?
"C" is for color. Is the color uneven?
"D" is for diameter. Is the mole or spot larger than the size of pencil eraser 6mm?
"E" is for evolving. Has the mole or spot changed during the past few weeks or months?
acne vulgaris patient teaching - CORRECT ANSWER: Wash face gently at least twice
daily with antibacterial soap (dial). Wait 30 minutes after washing face to before
applying topical acne medications in order to minimize skin irritation. Do not use topicals
on sunburned or irritated skin, abrasion, cuts, or eczema. The medication needs to be
temporarily stopped while the skin heals. Avoid contact to eyes, lips, angle of nose, and
mucous membranes with applying. Avoid oily makeup or oily hair conditioners. Avoid
excessive handling of face and cradling phones on the chin. Avoid excessive scrubbing
of the face.
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) - CORRECT ANSWER: the most common form of
leukemia in adults over 70 years of age; characterized by overproduction of
lymphocytes
Anemia from Thalassemia - CORRECT ANSWER: referral to hematologist.
Anemia of Chronic Disease treatment - CORRECT ANSWER: Must be differentiated
from other etiologies
-best treatment is correction of underlying disorder
-if severe, blood transfusions
,-erythropoietin therapy
Parental iron is given in these patients, SQ erythropoietin (CBC checked twice weekly
for 2-6 weeks) and seen by PCP every 30 days.
basal cell carcinoma - CORRECT ANSWER: BCC elevated papules with a pearly
appearance that may have some crusting. Telangiectatc blood vessels are seen on the
border. A central ulceration is seen at later stages.
Carbuncles - CORRECT ANSWER: Initially appear as multiple furuncles and develops
into a large, erythematous lump and must be drained before healing will take place and
this typically occurs spontaneously within 2 weeks. Carbuncles frequently require I&D
and need systemic antibiotics and a referral. Antibiotics include: TMP-SMX (MRSA
converage), dicloxacillin, cephalexin, or doxycycline.
A gram stain is recommended to check for MRSA strains.
chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) - CORRECT ANSWER: Sudden and may precede
mononucleosis-like illness or by significant GI findings. It tends to affect active highly
functional adults. The patient may appear tired and pale. Cervical lymph nodes may be
shotty and nontender, the rest of the exam my be unremarkable.
clinical presentation for infectious mononucleosis - CORRECT ANSWER: • Primarily
EBV transmitted through saliva typically seen in ages 10-35.
• Fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical and posterior auricular nodes),
malaise, fatigue, sweats. The syndrome is often heralded by malaise, headache, and
low-grade fever. Sore throat is often accompanied by pharyngeal inflammation and
tonsillar exudates.
• Splenomegaly is seen in 50 to 60 percent of patients, it begins to recede at 3 weeks.
Clinical presentation for Scabies - CORRECT ANSWER: Intense itching, worse at night.
Burrows noted between webs of fingers.
Clinical presentation of RA - CORRECT ANSWER: Early in disease malaise, diffuse
arthritis, weight loss, anorexia, and low grade fever are common. The patient may report
they wake in the night with joint pain & stiffness and it eases as the day progresses and
, the joint swelling also decreases with activity. With disease progression both small and
large joints may cause diminished activity, worsening pain, and immobility.
**Key findings on exam are symmetric polyarthritis and morning stiffness, which typically
lasts longer than one hour. Affected joints are tender, painful to pressure, edematous,
and partially immobile
CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) - CORRECT ANSWER: - Clonal, neoplastic
expansion of multipotent myeloid stem cell [myeloproliferative disease) -NEB cells
Etiology - Philadelphia chromosome - reciprocal translocation of long arms of 9 & 22
Commonly prescribed medications for Scabies - CORRECT ANSWER: Permethrin
Cream 5% (Elimite) is the first-line treatment. Safe in 2 months and older. Apply to all
areas from neck down and leave on for 8-12 hours. Repeat application in 1 week. May
repeat a third time in another week. Follow up in 1 week.
Antihistamines and topical steroids if the pruritis is bad.
contact dermatitis - CORRECT ANSWER: Rough, red patches, weeping lesions with
tiny vesicles.
Describe risk factors of individuals who should be started on post-exposure prophylaxis
(PEP). - CORRECT ANSWER: • An uninfected individual has a recent exposure that
has a substantial risk of HIV infection.
• Percutaneous contact
• Exposure of mucosal surfaces
And must be started within 72 hours of exposure
Describe the risk groups you would start HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP). -
CORRECT ANSWER: For individuals who are at ongoing high risk for HIV infection,
pre-exposure prophylaxis with an antiretroviral-based regimen is an effective strategy to
reduce the risk of infection.
Ongoing relationship with HIV infected partner.
Gay or bisexual man who has anal sex without condoms and is not in a monogamous
relationship, or who has had an STI in last 6 months
Update 2024-2025 Actual Exam 100 Questions
and 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed
A+
ABCDE of malignant melanoma - CORRECT ANSWER: A" stands for asymmetrical.
Does the mole or spot have an irregular shape
"B" stands for border. Is the border irregular or jagged?
"C" is for color. Is the color uneven?
"D" is for diameter. Is the mole or spot larger than the size of pencil eraser 6mm?
"E" is for evolving. Has the mole or spot changed during the past few weeks or months?
acne vulgaris patient teaching - CORRECT ANSWER: Wash face gently at least twice
daily with antibacterial soap (dial). Wait 30 minutes after washing face to before
applying topical acne medications in order to minimize skin irritation. Do not use topicals
on sunburned or irritated skin, abrasion, cuts, or eczema. The medication needs to be
temporarily stopped while the skin heals. Avoid contact to eyes, lips, angle of nose, and
mucous membranes with applying. Avoid oily makeup or oily hair conditioners. Avoid
excessive handling of face and cradling phones on the chin. Avoid excessive scrubbing
of the face.
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) - CORRECT ANSWER: the most common form of
leukemia in adults over 70 years of age; characterized by overproduction of
lymphocytes
Anemia from Thalassemia - CORRECT ANSWER: referral to hematologist.
Anemia of Chronic Disease treatment - CORRECT ANSWER: Must be differentiated
from other etiologies
-best treatment is correction of underlying disorder
-if severe, blood transfusions
,-erythropoietin therapy
Parental iron is given in these patients, SQ erythropoietin (CBC checked twice weekly
for 2-6 weeks) and seen by PCP every 30 days.
basal cell carcinoma - CORRECT ANSWER: BCC elevated papules with a pearly
appearance that may have some crusting. Telangiectatc blood vessels are seen on the
border. A central ulceration is seen at later stages.
Carbuncles - CORRECT ANSWER: Initially appear as multiple furuncles and develops
into a large, erythematous lump and must be drained before healing will take place and
this typically occurs spontaneously within 2 weeks. Carbuncles frequently require I&D
and need systemic antibiotics and a referral. Antibiotics include: TMP-SMX (MRSA
converage), dicloxacillin, cephalexin, or doxycycline.
A gram stain is recommended to check for MRSA strains.
chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) - CORRECT ANSWER: Sudden and may precede
mononucleosis-like illness or by significant GI findings. It tends to affect active highly
functional adults. The patient may appear tired and pale. Cervical lymph nodes may be
shotty and nontender, the rest of the exam my be unremarkable.
clinical presentation for infectious mononucleosis - CORRECT ANSWER: • Primarily
EBV transmitted through saliva typically seen in ages 10-35.
• Fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical and posterior auricular nodes),
malaise, fatigue, sweats. The syndrome is often heralded by malaise, headache, and
low-grade fever. Sore throat is often accompanied by pharyngeal inflammation and
tonsillar exudates.
• Splenomegaly is seen in 50 to 60 percent of patients, it begins to recede at 3 weeks.
Clinical presentation for Scabies - CORRECT ANSWER: Intense itching, worse at night.
Burrows noted between webs of fingers.
Clinical presentation of RA - CORRECT ANSWER: Early in disease malaise, diffuse
arthritis, weight loss, anorexia, and low grade fever are common. The patient may report
they wake in the night with joint pain & stiffness and it eases as the day progresses and
, the joint swelling also decreases with activity. With disease progression both small and
large joints may cause diminished activity, worsening pain, and immobility.
**Key findings on exam are symmetric polyarthritis and morning stiffness, which typically
lasts longer than one hour. Affected joints are tender, painful to pressure, edematous,
and partially immobile
CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) - CORRECT ANSWER: - Clonal, neoplastic
expansion of multipotent myeloid stem cell [myeloproliferative disease) -NEB cells
Etiology - Philadelphia chromosome - reciprocal translocation of long arms of 9 & 22
Commonly prescribed medications for Scabies - CORRECT ANSWER: Permethrin
Cream 5% (Elimite) is the first-line treatment. Safe in 2 months and older. Apply to all
areas from neck down and leave on for 8-12 hours. Repeat application in 1 week. May
repeat a third time in another week. Follow up in 1 week.
Antihistamines and topical steroids if the pruritis is bad.
contact dermatitis - CORRECT ANSWER: Rough, red patches, weeping lesions with
tiny vesicles.
Describe risk factors of individuals who should be started on post-exposure prophylaxis
(PEP). - CORRECT ANSWER: • An uninfected individual has a recent exposure that
has a substantial risk of HIV infection.
• Percutaneous contact
• Exposure of mucosal surfaces
And must be started within 72 hours of exposure
Describe the risk groups you would start HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP). -
CORRECT ANSWER: For individuals who are at ongoing high risk for HIV infection,
pre-exposure prophylaxis with an antiretroviral-based regimen is an effective strategy to
reduce the risk of infection.
Ongoing relationship with HIV infected partner.
Gay or bisexual man who has anal sex without condoms and is not in a monogamous
relationship, or who has had an STI in last 6 months
