CCRN Practice Questions - Cardiovascular Questions and Answers well Explained Latest 2024/2025 Update 100% Correct.

A patient develops atrial fibrillation after abdominal surgery. Her blood pressure falls from 110/70 mm Hg to 92/68 mm Hg. The hypotension is related to which of the following? a. Decrease in ventricular contractility b. Hypovolemia c. Mural thrombi d. Decrease in ventricular filling - Correct answer: d Rationale: The contribution that atrial contraction makes to ventricular filling volume is approximately 15% to 30%. Atrial fibrillation results in quivering but not contracting atria. The loss of 15% to 30% of diastolic filling volume reduces cardiac output and can have significant hemodynamic consequences. Although mural thrombi also are a problem, they result in an embolic phenomenon rather than a direct decrease in cardiac output. The relationship between the development of atrial fibrillation and the decrease in cardiac output make hypovolemia and decrease in contractility less likely. Test-Taking Strategy: Relate recent changes in patient status to recent occurrences. The patient had a change in atrial function, so select an option that results in loss of atrial contraction or "kick." Choose option d. Oxygen delivery (DO2) is the product of which of the following? a. PaO2, hemoglobin, mean arterial pressure b. SaO2, hemoglobin, cardiac output c. SvO2, cardiac index, SaO2 d. PaO2, mean arterial pressure, SvO2 - Correct answer: b Rationale: Ninety-seven percent of oxygen is attached to the hemoglobin molecule, so the SaO2 (arterial oxygen saturation) is a more accurate reflection of the amount of oxygen in blood. The PaO2 represents only the 3% that is dissolved in the plasma. The lungs must put the oxygen in the blood, the hemoglobin must carry the oxygen, and the cardiac output is a reflection of how well the heart is moving the blood with its hemoglobin with attached oxygen. SvO2 (venous oxygen saturation) is a reflection of the oxygen reserve. SvO2 is what is left over after the tissues have extracted what they need. The mean arterial pressure is a reflection of organ tissue perfusion pressure but does not indicate anything about the amount of oxygen in that blood.Test-Taking Strategy: Oxygen is delivered from the arterial end, so choose an option that has SaO2 instead of SvO2. Also remember that most oxygen is carried on hemoglobin. Look for SaO2 (not PaO2) and hemoglobin. The only option with both of these is option b. A patient is in cardiac and respiratory arrest. The selection of medications to reestablish cardiac function would stimulate the sympathetic nervous system beta1 receptors. This stimulation would result in increased automaticity and which of the following? a. Increased myocardial contractility b. Decreased left ventricular stroke work c. Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption d. Increased left ventricular afterload - Correct answer: a Rationale: The sympathetic nervous system contains alpha, beta, and dopaminergic receptors that produce various responses when stimulated. Stimulation of beta1 receptors increases heart rate, conductivity, and myocardial contractility. Stimulation of beta2 receptors produces vasodilation and bronchodilation. Alpha receptors, when stimulated, produce vasoconstriction. Stimulation of dopaminergic receptors produces a vasodilating effect on renal, mesenteric, coronary, and cerebral vessels. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the helpful clue in the stem: stimulate the sympathetic system and recall that this results in a fight-or-flight response—the body is responding to survive. Stroke volume would increase, so eliminate option b. Afterload would increase, but this is due to alpha stimulation, not beta1 stimulation, so eliminate option d. Because the heart is working faster and harder, the myocardial oxygen consumption does increase, so eliminate option c. Remember that the primary effects of beta1 receptors are to increase heart rate, contractility, and rate of conduction. Choose option a. A memory aid that also may help is this: beta 1 beta 2, 1 heart 2 lungs: beta1 affects the heart, and beta2 affects the lungs. A patient arrived in the emergency department with complaints of chest pain. The 12-lead electrocardiogram shows ST segment elevation in leads V3 and V4. Occlusion of the affected coronary artery most likely would affect perfusion to which portion of the conduction system? a. Sinoatrial (SA) node b. Bachmann's bundle c. Atrioventricular (AV) node d. Bundle of His - Correct answer: dRationale: ST segment elevation in leads V3 and V4 indicates injury to the anterior wall, which would occur with occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery. In most persons, the SA node, Bachmann's bundle, and AV node are supplied by the right coronary artery. The bundle of His is supplied by the left anterior descending artery. This is why an anterior myocardial infarction may cause type II second-degree AV block or third-degree AV heart block at the level of the bundle of His. Test-Taking Strategy: Note that options a, b, and c are part of the supraventricular conduction system. They usually are supplied by the right coronary artery. The LAD artery supplies most of the interventricular conduction system, including the bundle of His and the bundle branches. Which of the following types of block are most likely after an anterior wall myocardial infarction (MI)? a. Sinus block b. Second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type I c. Second-degree AV block, type II d. Third-degree AV block with junctional escape rhythm - Correct answer: c Rationale: Anterior MI is caused by a left anterior descending (LAD) artery lesion. The LAD artery supplies the bundle of His and bundle branches, so anterior MIs may cause blocks of the bundle of His or bundle branches. Second-degree AV block type II is a block at the level of the bundle of His. If this patient does develop a third-degree AV block, it would be at the level of the bundle of His, and the only escape rhythm available below the bundle of His is a ventricular escape rhythm. Test-Taking Strategy: The sinus node is supplied by right coronary artery (in 55% of people) or left coronary artery (in 45% of people), so eliminate option a. Type I AV block, also called Wenckebach, is a block at the AV node, and the AV node is supplied by right coronary artery (in 90% of people) or left coronary artery (10%), so eliminate option b. The LAD artery supplies the bundle of His, and blocks in this area would eliminate the possibility of junctional escape rhythms, so eliminate option d. Choose option c. A shift in the point of maximal impulse (PMI) to the fifth left intercostal space at the anterior axillary line could be caused by any of these conditions except: a. left ventricular hypertrophy. b. right tension pneumothorax.c. pericardial effusion. d. right pleural effusion. - Correct answer: c Rationale: In pericardial effusion or tamponade, there is frequently loss of palpability of the apical impulse because of the fluid layer. Left ventricular hypertrophy, right tension pneumothorax, and a right pleural effusion could shift the PMI left of normal. Normally the PMI is located at the fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. Test-Taking Strategy: Look for the process that would not shift the PMI to the left of the normal position. Picture the process. If the left ventricle is big, it will extend farther to the left. If there is excessive pressure or volume on the right side, it will push the heart toward the left. Pericardial effusion will decrease the intensity of the PMI but it won't shift it. Choose option c. An S4 is an expected physical finding in which of the following? a. Acute myocardial infarction b. Left ventricular failure c. Pericarditis d. Bundle branch block - Correct answer: a Rationale: An S4 is an indication of ventricular noncompliance. Noncompliance is caused by ischemia, infarction, hypertrophy, cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, or restrictive cardiomyopathy. Left ventricular failure would cause an S3. Pericarditis would cause a pericardial friction rub. Bundle branch blocks cause splits (left bundle branch block causes a paradoxical split of S2, and right bundle branch block causes a split of S1 and increased splitting of S2 during inspiration). Test-Taking Strategy: Read the question carefully and note the key word expected. Associate S4 with a noncompliant ventricle. Ischemia, infarction, and hypertrophy cause noncompliance. Choose option a. A woman, age 35 years, reports the feeling that her heart is racing out of her chest, shortness of breath, and dizziness on admission to the critical care unit. The patient reports a history of a "floppy valve" for the past 10 years. Which of the following is true regarding the murmur of mitral valve prolapse? a. Early systolic with a low-pitched, blowing quality b. Radiates to the carotid arteries c. Loudest at the lower left sternal border d. Usually accompanied by a midsystolic click - Correct answer: dRationale: The murmur of mitral valve prolapse is caused by mitral regurgitation. Mitral regurgitation murmurs are high-pitched, blowing, systolic murmurs that are loudest at the apex and radiate to the axilla. When specific to mitral valve prolapse, a midsystolic click usually is heard at the apex, and the murmur follows the click such as S1, click, murmur, S2. Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that all murmurs are high-pitched with the exceptions of mitral stenosis and tricuspid stenosis, so eliminate option a. Radiation is in the direction of blood flow. In this case, the direction is from the left ventricle to the left atrium, which causes the radiation to the axilla, not the carotid arteries. Eliminate option b. Mitral regurgitation murmurs are loudest at the apex, also called the mitral area. Eliminate option c. The click is associated with a mitral valve leaflet bulging toward the left atrium during midsystole. Remember that mitral valve prolapse also is called click-murmur syndrome. Choose option d. Which of the following describes the timing of the murmur of aortic stenosis? a. Holosystolic b. Systolic ejection c. Early diastolic d. Middiastolic to late diastolic - Correct answer: b Rationale: Aortic stenosis causes a high-pitched, harsh systolic ejection murmur that is loudest at the second right intercostal space (i.e., aortic area) and radiating to the carotid arteries. Mitral regurgitation is a holosystolic murmur. Aortic regurgitation is an early diastolic murmur. Mitral stenosis is a middiastolic to late diastolic murmur. Test-Taking Strategy: Stenosis means that the valve does not open well, so consider the following: When is the aortic valve open? The valve is open during systole, so if the valve does not open well, the turbulence (and the murmur) must occur during systole. Eliminate options c and d. Now, is the answer holosystolic or systolic ejection? Focus further on systole. When does blood go through the aortic valve? The first subphase of systole is isovolumetric contraction when all four valves are closed, no blood is moving, and the pressure in the ventricle is increasing to the point that it exceeds the pressure in the aorta and the aortic valve is opened. The turbulence (and murmur) does not begin until blood starts to go through the aortic valve. Choose systolic ejection, option b. A 25-year-old semicomatose woman is admitted to the critical care unit. The patient's friend reports the patient's use of illegal drugs. General assessment reveals a cachectic body. A prolonged QT segment is noted on the 12-lead electrocardiogram. Which electrolyte is least likely to be the cause of the observed electrical changes? a. Potassium b. Calciumc. Sodium d. Magnesium - Correct answer: c Rationale: Sodium affects phase 0 of the action potential or the cellular response to a stimulus that results in depolarization. A prolonged QT segment represents prolonged repolarization. Calcium, magnesium, or potassium imbalances may affect phases 2 and 3 of the action potential by shortening or lengthening this phase. Low levels of any of these would result in prolonged repolarization, which would be seen as a prolonged QT segment. Test-Taking Strategy: If you have no idea of the correct answer, use a common sense approach. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium abnormalities almost always are seen together. Also, abnormal levels are most likely to result in more severe abnormal body functions. Abnormal sodium levels are less likely to have as dramatic findings unless levels are extremely abnormal, as may be seen in endocrine abnormalities. Which of the following is a manifestation of left atrial enlargement on the electrocardiogram? a. Increased amplitude of the P wave on a rhythm strip b. Wide, notched P waves in lead II on 12-lead electrocardiogram c. Diphasic P wave in lead V1 on 12-lead electrocardiogram d. Tall, peaked P waves in lead II on 12-lead electrocardiogram - Correct answer: b Rationale: P waves represent atrial contraction, so look for changes in the P waves as an indication of atrial enlargement. Leads II and V1 are the two best P wave leads. P waves on a voltage standardized 12- lead electrocardiogram should be about 2½ blocks tall and 2½ blocks wide. The P wave in lead II becomes tall and peaked in right atrial enlargement and wide and notched in left atrial enlargement. The P wave is normally diphasic in lead V1. The initial half of the normal diphasic P wave in lead V1 represents right atrial depolarization, and the terminal half of the normal diphasic P wave in lead V1 represents left atrial depolarization. Therefore right atrial enlargement causes a dominant initial half of the diphasic P wave in lead V1, whereas left atrial enlargement causes a dominant terminal half of the diphasic P wave in lead V1. Test-Taking Strategy: Rhythm strips have no standardization for voltage, and enlargement and hypertrophy are manifested by changes in voltage. So eliminate option a because anyone can increase the size of the P wave by increasing the size or gain. Diphasic P waves (ones that are positive and negative) are normal in lead V1, so eliminate option c. Tall, peaked P waves in lead II are called P pulmonale and are associated with right atrial enlargement, so eliminate option d. Wide, notched P waves in lead II are called P mitrale and are associated with left atrial enlargement. Choose option b.