CFRN Practice Test Questions With Correct Answers Latest | Graded

CFRN Practice Test Questions With Correct Answers Latest | Graded. Prolonged, unrelieved obstruction causes irreversible damage is typically seen in what type of renal disorder? A. Postrenal disorders B. Suprarenal disorders C. Obstructed venous disorders D. Lateral renal disorders A. Postrenal disorders Head injuries are the leading cause of ______________________ in the pediatric population. A. Pneumonia B. Degenerate spinal disease C. Death D. All of the above C. Death Which of the following statements about congenital heart defects is TRUE? A. The term infant is at the highest risk for an undiagnosed congenital heart defect. B. Congenital heart defects are classified as either cyanotic or acyanotic. C. A child with a relatively small lesion may go on to age 8 to 12 months before it is detected. D. The pattern of cyanosis, decreased mental status, and lethargy may mimic hypoglycemia. B. Congenital heart defects are classified as either cyanotic or acyanotic. While caring for a critical patient with profound hypoxia, you recall that changes in the V/Q ratio is one of the most common causes of hypoxemia. Which of the following best describes the V/Q ratio? A. A marker for inflammation when a blood clot may be present B. A measure of the coaguability of the pulmonary blood flow C. A measurement of how much blood flow must be present at the alveolar capillary membrane for perfusion to take place D. A serologic measurement of pulmonary injury C. A measurement of how much blood flow must be present at the alveolar capillary membrane for perfusion to take place CFRN Practice Test Questions With Correct Answers Latest | Graded In the presence of midface trauma with instability, which airway maneuver would be contraindicated? A. Digital intubation B. Oropharyngeal suctioning of foreign bodies C. Oral intubation D. Nasotracheal intubation D. Nasotracheal intubation You are on scene with a 37 year-old male involved in an MVC, combative and confused on-scene. Patient was intubated with a 8.0 ETT, 24 cm at the lips. Quantitative ETCO2 monitoring shows a ETCO2 of 50. Which action should be undertaken by the flight/transport nurse? A. Slightly hyperventile the patient B. Switch to a litmus paper ETCO2 detector C. Advance ETT 1 cm, then reassess D. Continue ventilating at 12 bpm with 100% FiO2 A. Slightly hyperventile the patient When assessing your patient's airway prior to intubation, you use the Mallampati classification. Your physical assessment reveals that the posterior pharynx is partially exposed. Based on your knowledge of this classification, you know that this is a Mallampati grade class of: A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV. B. II. During intubation, the operator may use the BURP technique. This acronym stands for: A. Bag the patient, use pressure, reverse, placement B. Bilateral, upwards, replace, position C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure D. Beneath, under, rearward, posterior C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure You have just orally intubated your patient. When listening to breath sounds, you note that there are air sounds over the epigastrium. It is difficult to determine the presence of lung sounds. There is no significant chest rise or fall with revelations. The most appropriate action at this point is to: A. Deflate the cuff and pull back the tube 2 to 3 cm. B. Deflate the cuff and advance the tube 1 to 2 cm. C. Continue to ventilate for another minute and then reassess. D. Deflate the cuff, remove the tube, and repeat the steps for oral intubation. D. Deflate the cuff, remove the tube, and repeat the steps for oral After several failed intubation attempts, your patient still requires an advanced airway. There is a significant chance your patient has an airway obstruction as well. You are considering doing a surgical cricothyrotomy. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding this procedure? A. It would be contraindicated in a 10-year-old patient. B. It requires more than just a scalpel and an endotracheal tube. C. It is not necessary to visualize anatomic landmarks. D. It is indicated if intubation is not feasible. D. It is indicated if intubation is not Which of the following is the MOST commonly injured organ in the abdominal cavity? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Kidneys B. Spleen Liver injuries will cause pain in the right upper quadrant along with right shoulder pain as blood accumulates around the diaphragm. The pain in the right shoulder is called: A. Gourd's sign B. Kehr's sign C. Vagal's sign D. Hobb's sign B. Kehr's sign The phrenic nerve that arises from cervical vertebrae 3, 4, and 5 controls the _______. A. Liver B. Diaphragm C. Stomach D. Pancreas B. Diaphragm The _______ is the largest solid organ in the human body. A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver D. Liver A root cause of esophageal varices is/are: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Reactive gastritis C. Cirrhosis D. Peptic ulcers C. Cirrhosis The most common cause of lower GI bleeding is: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diverticulosis C. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) D. Angiodysplasia B. Diverticulosis The appearance of dark, tarry blood in the stool is known as: A. Hematemesis B. Melena C. Hematochezia D. Crohn's disease B. Melena The most common cause of pancreatitis is: A. Gallstones B. Alcohol abuse C. Hypercalcemia D. Tumors A. Gallstones Development of peripheral edema, ascites, and pulmonary edema in the patient with liver failure is a result of a decreased production of: A. Bilirubin B. Aspartate amniotransferase C. Albumin D. Creatinine C. Albumin Fulminant hepatic failure is most commonly caused by: A. Alcohol abuse B. Idiosyncratic drug reactions C. Hepatitis D. Acetaminophen toxicity D. Acetaminophen toxicity In young children, the narrowest part of the trachea is the: A. Vallecula B. Cricoid ring C. Epiglottis D. Hyoid B. Cricoid ring In a child, it may be normal for the liver and spleen to: A. Be enlarged B. Bleed easily C. Be palpated below the costal margin D. Push up against the diaphragm, causing decreased vital capacity C. Be palpated below the costal margin In infants, the minimum expected urine output is: A. 1 mL/kg/hr. B. 2 mL/kg/hr. C. 3 mL/kg/hr. D. 4 mL/kg/hr. B. 2 mL/kg/hr Which of the following is a major factor that makes children susceptible to hypothermia? A. The inability to shiver B. Fewer glycogen stores C. A larger proportion of body fat D. All of the above A. The inability to shiver All pediatric assessments should begin with forming a general impression using the Pediatric: A. Trauma score B. Assessment triangle C. Perfusion score D. Faces scale B. Assessment triangle Due to the relatively large tongue of a child in proportion to his or her mouth, successful intubation requires: proper blade size, proper positioning, and proper: A. Suctioning B. Sedation C. Sweeping of the tongue D. Cricoid pressure C. Sweeping of the tongue Physical assessment of a child's cardiovascular system begins with: A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness B. Checking the child's central pulse rate C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Placing the child on a cardiac monitor A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness An increase in _______ is the chief compensatory mechanism in children to increase end-organ perfusion and to maintain blood pressure. A. Heart rate B. Stroke volume C. Contractility D. Peripheral vasoconstriction A. Heart rate Epiglottitis is a medical emergency in the pediatric population. Remember the four Ds, which stand for: A. Dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, and distress B. Diaphoresis, diplopia, diarrhea, and distress C. Dilated (pupils), drooling, distress, and diaphoresis D. Drooling, dysphagia, distant lung sounds, and distress A. Dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, and distress Options to relieve a foreign body airway obstruction in a pediatric includes: A. Abdominal thrusts only B. One attempt at nasotracheal intubation C. Carotid massage D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps A child in shock will fail quickly when the child's compensatory systems: A. Are in overdrive B. Fail C. Thrive D. Are functioning normally B. Fail In a child in shock, the heart rate is the: A. Only compensatory mechanism B. Last compensatory mechanism C. Primary compensatory mechanism D. None of the above C. Primary compensatory mechanism Trauma is the pediatric patient is the most common cause of ___________________ shock. A. Anaphylactic B. Hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic B. Hypovolemic Causes of cardiogenic shock in the pediatric patient include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hyperammonemia B. Drug toxicity C. Myocarditis D. Arrhythmias A. Hyperammonemia The primary treatments for distributive / neurogenic shock include: A. Lasix and nitroglycerin B. Volume replacement and epinephrine C. Dobutamine and metoprolol D. Albuterol B. Volume replacement and epinephrine An example of a cardiac defect that does not cause cyanosis in the pediatric patient is: A. Transposition of the Great Arteries B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Pulmonary Stenosis D. All of the above C. Pulmonary Stenosis Common diagnostic cardiac tests for the pediatric patient include of the following EXCEPT: A. 12-lead ECG B. Palpating pulses C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Assessing capillary refill A. 12-lead ECG Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is a critical skill used by the RN. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding RSI? A. The indications are markedly different than those for endotracheal intubation. B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. C. It is indicated if you are unable to ventilate the patient adequately. D. RSI makes no assumptions about the timing of the patient's last meal. B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. When selecting a sedative/induction agent to use during RSI, sodium thiopental and methohexital are ultra-short-acting barbiturates. Their short duration of action makes them attractive to use; however, they do have potential complications and may not always be the ideal agent to use. Which of the following statements best reflects the concern about using these particular agents? A. They are expensive. B. They must be stored in a controlled environment. C. They may cause a significant interaction with other ALS drugs. D. They have a propensity to precipitate myocardial depression and hypotension. D. They have a propensity to precipitate myocardial depression and hypotension Which of the following is an example of a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent? A. Vecuronium (Norcuron) B. Rocuronium (Zemuron) C. Succinylcholine (Anectine) D. Atracurium (Tricium) C. Succinylcholine (Anectine) Normal heart sounds are designated as: A. S1, S2, and S3 B. S1 and S2 C. S3 and S4 D. S1, S2, S3, and S4 B. S1 and S2 The pulmonary vein moves: A. Oxygen-deficient blood from the heart to the lungs B. Oxygen-deficient blood from the lungs to the heart C. Oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the lungs D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart Distension of the external jugular veins is indicative of: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Left-sided heart failure C. Hypotension D. Myocardial infarction A. Right-sided heart failure Chemoreceptors respond to changes in which of the following indicators in blood?