NEHA/REHS Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers | Updated & Verified 2024/2025 (Graded)

How does the Institute of Medicine (IOM) defines the mission of public health? - Correct Answer-As "fulfilling society's interest in assuring conditions in which people can be healthy". What are the 10 Essential Public Health Services (ES)? - Correct Answer-1. Monitor health 2. Diagnose and investigate 3. Inform, educate, and empower 4. Mobilize community partnerships 5. Develop policies and plans 6. Enforce laws and regulations 7. Link people to needed personal health services 8. Assure a competent workforce 9. Evaluate 10. Research What are three forces that may help shape the future of the environmental health profession? - Correct Answer-1. Climate change and resulting ecosystem changes and natural disasters 2. Population growth and the global rise in standard of living resulting in faster deterioration of the natural environment 3. Novel or pharmaceutical-resistant pathogens What does AREC stand for? - Correct Answer-anticipation, recognition, evaluation, control Compliance and enforcement intervention strategies can be divided into what two groups? - Correct Answer-1. Those designed to achieve immediate on-site correction. 2. Those designed to achieve long-term compliance. What is a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)? - Correct Answer-A standard operation procedure (SOP) is a written process that provides consistent guidance to employees within an organization as to how they should properly complete a given task in a uniform manner. It provides detailed steps and details the tools necessary to complete the task. What is Malfeasance? - Correct Answer-The doing of an act that is wrongful and that is known to be wholly unauthorized by the official. NEHA/REHS Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers | Updated & Verified 2024/2025 | Graded What is Misfeasance? - Correct Answer-The doing of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner. What is Nonfeasance? - Correct Answer-The failure to perform an official duty without sufficient excuse. What are the two main types of epidemiological studies that can be used in an epidemiological investigation? - Correct Answer-Descriptive and Analytical. Active Immunity - Correct Answer-Results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity can be acquired through natural immunity or vaccine-induced immunity Passive Immunity - Correct Answer-When a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. Agent (biology/epi) - Correct Answer-A factor (e.g., a microorganism or chemical substance) or form of energy whose presence, excessive presence, or in the case of deficiency diseases, relative absence is essential for the occurrence of a disease or other adverse health outcome. Mode of Transmission - Correct Answer-The manner in which an agent is transmitted from its reservoir to a susceptible host. Carrier - Correct Answer-A person or animal that harbors the infectious agent for a disease and can transmit it to others, but does not demonstrate signs of the disease. A carrier can be asymptomatic (never indicate signs of the disease) or can display signs of the disease only during the incubation period, convalescence, or postconvalescence. The period of being a carrier can be short (a transient carrier) or long (a chronic carrier). Morbidity - Correct Answer-(disease) Any departure, subjective or objective, from a state of physiological or psychological health and well-being. Mortality - Correct Answer-Death Demographic Information - Correct Answer-Personal characteristics of a person or group (e.g., age, sex, race/ethnicity, residence, and occupation) demographic information is used in descriptive epidemiology to characterize patients or populations. Pandemic - Correct Answer-An epidemic occurring over a widespread area (multiple countries or continents) and usually affecting a substantial proportion of the population. Endemic - Correct Answer-The constant presence of an agent or health condition within a given geographic area or population; can also refer to the usual prevalence of an agent or condition. Epidemic - Correct Answer-The occurrence of more cases of disease, injury, or other health condition than expected in a given area or among a specific group of persons during a particular period. Usually, the cases are presumed to have a common cause or to be related to one another in some way. Frequency - Correct Answer-The amount or number of occurrences of an attribute or health outcome among a population. Portal of Entry - Correct Answer-A pathway into the host that gives an agent access to tissue that will allow it to multiply or act. Prevalence - Correct Answer-The number or proportion of cases or events or attributes among a given population. Host - Correct Answer-A person or other living organism that is susceptible to or harbors an infectious agent under natural conditions. Reservoir - Correct Answer-The habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies, which can include humans, animals, or the environment. Descriptive Epidemiology - Correct Answer-The aspect of epidemiology concerned with organizing and summarizing data regarding the persons affected (e.g., the characteristics of those who became ill), time (e.g., when they become ill), and place (e.g., where they might have been exposed to the cause of illness). Applied Epidemiology - Correct Answer-The application or practice of epidemiology to control and prevent health problems. Lag Phase - Correct Answer-The period of time between the introduction of a microorganism into a culture medium and the time it begins to increase exponentially Physical factors - Correct Answer-Examples include geology and climate, harmful substances, such as air pollution or proximity to toxic sites (the focus of classic environmental epidemiology); access to various health-related resources (e.g., healthy or unhealthy foods, recreational resources, medical care); and community design and the "built environment" (e.g., land use mix, street connectivity, transportation systems). Log phase (growth phase) - Correct Answer-The period of growth of a population of cells (as of a microorganism) in a culture medium during which numbers increase exponentially and which is represented by a part of the growth curve that is a straight line segment if the logarithm of numbers is plotted against time Equal Protection - Correct Answer-A right guaranteed by the Bill of Rights requiring the comparable treatment of people and situations. It guides governmental actions in not burdening or benefiting people differentially without reasonable grounds. Due Process - Correct Answer-Refers to the necessary procedural requirements that government agencies must follow to act against parties in violation of applicable laws. Ordinances - Correct Answer-Laws enacted by local elected officials, such as in municipalities and counties. Regulations (or rules) - Correct Answer-Laws enacted by regulatory agencies, also known as administrative agencies, at the local, state, or federal levels. License (or permit) - Correct Answer-Gives permission to engage in a legally restricted activity. Litigation - Correct Answer-Generally considered a civil action to settle a dispute in a court of law. Administrative Hearings - Correct Answer-Informal and formal, allow both parties the opportunity to express and clarify their positions. Administrative Order (enforcement/abatement order) - Correct Answer-A legal document from a state or federal agency directing an individual, business, or agency to correct or stop an activity. Agent (legal term) - Correct Answer-A person authorized by another. Persons in charge are usually agents, and the law generally recognizes that notices, orders, and other requirements can be made of agents with as much binding force as if the action were given to the owner directly. Embargo - Correct Answer-A legal order prohibiting the removal or use of something. It may entail placing a notice or tag on the object (as occurs when fish are embargoed because they are known to contain a heavy metal in their bodies that would endanger the public if eaten). Seizure order - Correct Answer-legal permission to confiscate, retain, and/or dispose of something Condemnation - Correct Answer-A legal judgment that finds a structure or property too dangerous or unfit for human use. Public Nuisances - Correct Answer-Interfere with the public's ability to pursue comfort, health, or quiet. Nuisance abatement - Correct Answer-A legal order to stop such hindering or annoying activities (aka public nuisances). Civil law - Correct Answer-Involves individuals or groups acting in a nonpublic capacity in which some form of compensation is sought and liability, not guilt, is established. Prohibitory injunction - Correct Answer-An order to cease and desist a particular action. Mandatory injunction - Correct Answer-an order to take action, such as applying for a permit, changing a procedure, reporting an activity, or correcting a violation. Misdemeanors - Correct Answer-Less serious than felonies and are most often punishable by fine or imprisonment. Torts - Correct Answer-Civil wrongs, injuries to an individual's person, property, or reputation. Informed consent - Correct Answer-Lessens the professional's liability when the risk of a pending activity is explained. (Ex. If it is observed that a restaurant's refrigerated meat is close to, but still within, the time and temperature limits allowed by law, the REHS/RS will explain that it is approaching a hazardous condition. The manager must then determine whether to destroy the food or continue to use it. In this case, if the manager takes the risk of serving the food, the REHS/RS has already given him an informed consent.) Statutes of limitation - Correct Answer-Establish the maximum length of time that a person can be sued or charged after committing a legal violation, including criminal violations, breaches of contract, and torts in civil law. Search Warrant - Correct Answer-Must be obtained from a court based on probable cause that a criminal violation exists, which is stated in a sworn affidavit. This warrant authorizes the officer to search for and seize any property that is evidence of the commission of a crime, contraband, the fruits of crime, or things otherwise criminally possessed. Administrative (or inspection) warrants - Correct Answer-Special type of warrant, reduces issuance requirements from probable cause to justifiable cause that an inspection is needed. With this type of warrant, it is not necessary to seize any objects or bring them back to court. The inspector must only note relevant conditions that are present. What should an inspector do first when entering an establishment? - Correct AnswerIdentify themselves, show their credentials, and state the purpose of their inspection. Exclusionary rule (concept of "fruit from the poisonous tree") - Correct Answer-A principle that disallows illegally obtained evidence to be admitted in court. It also stipulates that any evidence seized during an administrative inspection cannot be used as evidence in a criminal trial. Subpoena - Correct Answer-A legal process to compel access to records and documents. It gives access to existing records but cannot force a person to create additional documents, fill out questionnaires, or answer verbal questions. The Clean Air Act of 1970 (CAA) - Correct Answer-Established the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for six Criteria pollutants (carbon monoxide, lead, NO2, ozone, particulate matter, sulfur dioxide). What are the six Criteria pollutants? - Correct Answer-carbon monoxide, lead, NO2, ozone, particulate matter, and sulfur dioxide Hazardous air pollutants - Correct Answer-Chemicals that may increase mortality or serious, irreversible illness. (criteria pollutants for this purpose are primarily animal or human carcinogens, which include asbestos, benzene, beryllium, mercury, radionuclides, and vinyl chloride) Is indoor air quality federally regulated? - Correct Answer-No Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) - Correct Answer-Addresses the manufacturing, processing, distribution, use, and disposal of several commercial and industrial chemicals. Pollution Prevention Act - Correct Answer-Makes pollution prevention a national priority and serves as the platform to require polluters to undergo source reduction. What are the two federal laws responsible for protecting water as an environmental medium? What do they regulate? - Correct Answer-Clean Water Act of 1972 (CWA) & Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) Only regulate public water. What does MCL stand for and what contaminants have finalized MCLs for regulation? - Correct Answer-Maximum contaminant level (MCL) is a concentration maximum for a chemical or constituent that may not be exceeded in drinking water regulated under the SDWA. MCLs have been finalized for the following regulated contaminants: microorganisms, radioactivity, a group of seven metals, a group of organic pesticides, some inorganic anions, total haloforms, and a group of organic chemicals. What are the two federal laws governing the regulation of present and future land disposal practices and cleanup? What do they encompass? - Correct Answer-Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA 1976) and the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA). These acts encompass all regulations for land disposal units and activities, including landfills for municipal wastes, hazardous wastes, industrial residues, and infectious or pathologic materials. Surface impoundments or lagoons are regulated for wastewater treatment, hazardous waste treatment or storage, equalization basins, and storm water runoff. Also included are waste piles and land treatment. The __________________ regulates the levels of chemicals in food through the authority of the ___________________. - Correct Answer-Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act The FDA regulates the levels of chemicals in food through the authority of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act. Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 - Correct Answer-This act requires the labeling of commercially packaged food to include any of the "big eight" allergens that may be present in food. What are the big eight allergens? - Correct Answer-Milk, soy, eggs, wheat, finfish, shellfish, peanuts & tree nuts Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (aka Tobacco Control Act) - Correct Answer-Signed into law in 2009. This law granted the FDA the authority to regulate the manufacture, distribution, and marketing of tobacco products. Hazard - Correct Answer-Any physical, chemical, or biological property that may cause an unacceptable consumer health risk. Physical Hazard - Correct Answer-Items that may cause choking or injury if consumed in food. Chemical Hazards - Correct Answer-Elements and compounds that may cause illness or injury if consumed in food. These substances may be agricultural chemicals, industrial chemicals, naturally occurring toxins, flavor enhancers or preservatives. Allergens - Correct Answer-Any nonparasitic antigens (proteins) capable of evoking a hypersensitive immune response in allergic individuals. Biological contamination (hazards) - Correct Answer-Occurs when enough harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites get into food. (the cause of most foodborne illnesses are from bacteria and viruses) Bacteria - Correct Answer-Single-celled microorganisms found in most environments on earth. What does FAT TOM stand for? - Correct Answer-Food, Acidity, Time, Temperature, Oxygen, Moisture What are endospores? (spores) - Correct Answer-An environmentally resistant structure that allows the bacteria to survive conditions that it might not otherwise when conditions are not favorable to growth and reproduction. Pathogens - Correct Answer-Bacteria that can cause illness in humans if consumed in food. Mesophilic pathogens - Correct Answer-Grow best at the temperature range of 79 degrees F (21 C) to 110 degrees F (43 C). Thermophilic bacteria grow best above ________ - Correct Answer-110 degrees F (43 C) Direct consumption of a pathogen in sufficient quantities to cause illness is referred to an an ___________ - Correct Answer-Infection Consuming a toxin produced in food is called _______________ - Correct AnswerIntoxication Toxin-mediated infection (or toxicoinfection) - Correct Answer-Occurs when a pathogen is consumed that later produces a toxin while in the digestive system. Fungi include _______, ________, and ____________. - Correct Answer-yeasts, molds and mushrooms Viruses - Correct Answer-Acellular infectious agents that lack most characteristics of living things, reproducing only within the living cells of a host organism. ________________________________ are most susceptible to viral contamination because they receive no further heating after being handled. - Correct Answer-Readyto-eat foods