TEST BANK FOR MODERN BLOOD BANKING & TRANSFUSION PRACTICES 7TH EDITION BY DENISE M. HARMENING 9780803668881, Complete All Chapters 1-20

Chapter 1 RBCs and Platelet Preservation: Historical Perspectives and Current Trends Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Which metabolic pathway is responsible for generating 90% of the ATP for the RBC? a. Pentose phosphate shunt c. Glycolysis b. Luebering-Rapoport shunt d. Methemoglobin reductase ____ 2. A unit of blood was returned to the blood bank before it was spiked. Apparently the patient’s IV failed. The unit of blood was outside the blood bank for 35 minutes. Which of the statements below is most accurate? a. The unit of blood should be discarded immediately. b. The unit of blood can be returned to inventory. c. The unit of blood must be transfused within 4 hours or be discarded at the end of that time. d. The unit of blood must be transfused with 24 hours. ____ 3. What is the average diameter of a platelet? a. 5 to 10 µm c. 1 to 2 µm b. 2 to 4 µm d. 4 to 6 µm ____ 4. In the normal hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve, what percentage of oxygen is released to the tissues when PO2 averages 40 mm Hg? a. 75% c. 100% b. 25% d. 50% ____ 5. What factors are known to influence platelet metabolism and function? a. Storage temperature c. Platelet count b. Initial pH d. All of the above ____ 6. Which of the following red blood cell morphologies may be present on the peripheral blood smear as a result of loss of RBC membrane? a. Spherocytes c. Burr cells b. Target cells d. Schistocytes ____ 7. What does the term autologous transfusion refer to? a. A parent donating blood for his or her child b. An individual donating blood for a friend c. An individual donating blood for a relative d. An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion ____ 8. What is the primary function of hemoglobin? a. Iron metabolism c. Oxygen transport b. Porphyrin synthesis d. Signal transduction ____ 9. All of the following areas of red blood cell biology are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival except: a. Cellular metabolism. c. Site of the ABO antigen attachment. b. RBC membrane. d. Hemoglobin structure. ____ 10. What is the correct biochemical composition of the RBC membrane? a. 52% protein, 40% lipid, 8% carbohydrate b. 40% protein, 8% lipid, 52% carbohydrate c. 8% protein, 52% lipid, 40% carbohydrate d. 8% lipid, 40% carbohydrate, 52% protein ____ 11. All of the following biochemical changes are associated with loss of red blood cell viability upon storage except: a. Decreased pH. c. Increased ATP level. b. Loss of red blood cell function. d. Decreased glucose consumption. ____ 12. Which red blood cell preservative has a storage time of 35 days? a. ACD c. AS-1 b. CPDA-1 d. CPD ____ 13. The RBC membrane is relatively permeable to all of the following except: a. Chloride. c. Bicarbonate. b. Sodium. d. Water. ____ 14. What percentage of platelets is sequestered in the spleen as functional reserve after being released from the bone marrow? a. 30% c. 10% b. 50% d. 25% ____ 15. What is the major biochemical consideration in platelet storage? a. Glucose metabolism c. Production of carbon dioxide b. Oxygen supply d. Regulation of pH ____ 16. What would the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve depict in a patient exhibiting clinical signs of alkalosis? a. Normal c. Shift to the right b. Shift to the left d. None of the above ____ 17. Name the main lipid components of a red blood cell membrane. a. Phospholipid c. Glycolipid b. Sphingomyelin d. Glycophorin A ____ 18. The ABO blood groups were discovered in 1901 by whom? a. Charles Drew c. Loutit and Mollison b. Karl Landsteiner d. Edward Lindeman ____ 19. A standing order of platelets was shipped to your facility by your supplier. It was inadvertently left in the corner of the department until discovered 36 hours later. What would the appropriate action be for the blood banker? a. If the temperature in the box was 22 +/- 2°C and the platelet swirl seemed OK, it would be OK to accept the unit into inventory. b. The platelets have fallen outside the supplier’s quality assurance. The unit should be discarded because the pH has probably dropped too low and platelet activation has been compromised. c. If the temperature was 1°C to 6°C and the platelet swirl seemed OK, it would be OK to accept the unit into inventory. d. If the platelets appeared OK and passed the platelet swirl test after being placed on the agitator, they could be accepted into the inventory. ____ 20. Which metabolic pathway permits the accumulation of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)? a. Glycolysis c. Pentose phosphate shunt b. Luebering-Rapoport shunt d. Methemoglobin reductase ____ 21. All of the following are consistent with a "shift to the right" of the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve except: a. Increased 2,3-DPG. b. 50% O2 saturation to tissues. c. Decreased 2,3-DPG. d. Decreased hemoglobin affinity for O2. ____ 22. What is the normal platelet count range per cubic millimeter? a. 100 to 350 c. 50,000 to 200,000 b. 150,000 to 350,000 d. 350,000 to 500,000 ____ 23. What cryoprotective agent is added to red blood cells upon freezing? a. Dextrose c. Glycerol b. Adsol d. All of the above ____ 24. If platelets are to be stored for 5 days on a rotator, what is the optimal storage temperature? a. 1°C to 6°C c. 35°C to 37°C b. 20°C to 24°C d. 1°C to 10°C ____ 25. What role do platelets play in hemostasis? a. Maintenance of vascular integrity b. Initial arrest of bleeding by platelet plug formation c. Stabilization of the hemostatic plug d. All of the above ____ 26. Which of the following best describes "integral" membrane proteins? a. Reside at the cytoplasmic surface of membrane b. Span the entire membrane surface c. Form the red blood cell cytoskeleton d. None of the above ____ 27. How is stroma-free hemoglobin solution prepared? a. Outdated red blood cells are concentrated, and stroma is removed. b. Outdated red blood cells are diluted with saline, and stroma is removed. c. Outdated red blood cells are lysed, and stroma is removed. d. None of the above ____ 28. What is the normal life span of an RBC? a. 100 days c. 120 hours b. 120 days d. 2 days ____ 29. Regarding loss of RBC membrane deformability, all of the following are true except: a. Increase in ATP level. b. Decrease in ATP level. c. Increase in calcium level. d. Decrease in spectrin phosphorylation level. ____ 30. One of the most important controls of hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is: a. Glucose. c. K + . b. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG). d. Ca++ . ____ 31. The normal position of the oxygen dissociation curve depends on three ligands normally found within the RBC. Which one of the following is not one of these ligands? a. H + ions c. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) b. CO2 d. Na+ ____ 32. Which of the following events does not occur while RBCs are stored? a. 2,3-DPG levels increase. b. Potassium levels increase. c. Hgb has a decreased affinity for oxygen carrying capacity. d. 2,3-DPG and potassium levels increase. ____ 33. In order to maintain ATP levels in stored blood, ______________ can be added to CPD to extend the shelflife of stored RBCs from 21 days to 35 days. This new preservative is designated as CPDA-1. a. Mannitol c. Adenine and glucose b. Adenine saline d. Rejuvenix ____ 34. Which type of blood storage container is no longer available for use in the United States because it may limit the viability of RBCs? a. Glass bottles c. DEHP-free polyolefin containers b. PVC plastic bags with DEHP d. Latex-free plastic containers ____ 35. A rare unit of blood became outdated 48 hours ago but is needed for a patient. Which of the following concepts applies to this situation? a. The blood could be rejuvenated by adding Rejuvesol, being washed appropriately, and being transfused within 48 hours. b. The blood could be rejuvenated with Rejuvesol, washed, and given immediately to the patient. c. Once a unit is outdated, it is no longer available for use. d. The unit can be rejuvenated immediately, washed, and stored in the appropriate refrigerator until needed later in the week. ____ 36. Hemoglobin-based oxygen carriers have been produced from which of the following sources? a. Bovine c. Recombinant hemoglobin b. Human d. All of the above ____ 37. Which of the following statements about perfluorocarbons (PFCs) is not true? a. PFCs are hydrocarbon structures in which all the hydrogen atoms have been replaced with fluorine. b. PFCs carry oxygen and carbon dioxide by dissolving them. c. PFCs are able to carry oxygen to tissues that are inaccessible, even to RBCs, because of their small size. d. PFCs are currently available for use in the United States and several other countries as a red blood cell substitute. ____ 38. Platelets are anucleated but are composed of organelles. Generally most of these organelles are composed of cytoplastic granules. When stimulated, which one of these granules would be most important in satisfying the metabolic need of the platelet? a. Dense granules c. Lysosomes b. Alpha granules d. Coarse granules ____ 39. Generally, the quality control measurements required by various accreditation organizations for platelet concentrates include: a. Platelet concentrate volume and platelet count. b. Leukocyte count if claims of leukoreduction are made. c. pH of the unit. d. All of the above ____ 40. Which of the following is not a major factor that influences platelet shape and activation while the platelet is in storage? a. pH c. Agitation b. Volume d. Temperature ____ 41. Proper agitation of platelets while they are being stored is: a. Important because when not agitated properly the platelets will stick together and not perform properly when transfused. b. Important because the pH of the stored platelets will increase and the platelets will lose functionality. c. Important because the pH of the stored platelets will decrease and the platelets will lose functionality. d. not important because it has been deemed unnecessary by the FDA. ____ 42. Which of the following is not a commercial system approved by the FDA for screening for bacterial contamination in platelet collections? a. BacT/ALERT c. BACTEC b. eBDS d. Scansytems ____ 43. Which of the following is a possible future method in pathogen reduction to treat platelet components? a. UV light and amotosalen c. Vitamin B12 and UV light b. Amphotericin B d. Penicillin ____ 44. Which of the following is licensed additive solutions approved for the storage of red blood cells for 42 days? a. Adsol (AS-1) c. Optisol (AS-5) b. Nutricel (AS-3) d. All of the above Chapter 1: Answers 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 3 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 15. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 3 17. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 18. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 3 20. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 21. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 22. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 29. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 31. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 32. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 33. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 34. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 35. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 3 36. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 37. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 3 39. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 41. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 1 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 44. ANS: D PTS: 1 KEY: Taxonomy Level: 2 Powered by TCPDF () Chapter 2. Basic Genetics Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. When 1,000 donors were tested, 75% were positive for C and 25% were negative for C; the gene frequency of C is: a. 10. c. 0.5. b. 1. d. 25. ____ 2. All of the following may cause an alteration in DNA, except: a. Ultraviolet light. c. Antibodies. b. Alkylating agents. d. Enzymes. ____ 3. How is it genetically possible for a child to type Rh-negative? a. Both parents are Dd. c. Mom is DD and Dad is Dd. b. Both parents are DD. d. Sibling is Rh-positive. ____ 4. All of the following are included in transcription except: a. mRNA terminates at the 5' end. b. RNA polymerase II binds to a promoter. c. it proceeds from the 3' end to the 5' end. d. the 5' end is capped with a methyl residue. ____ 5. Which of the following best describes the structure of human chromosomes? a. Linear strands of DNA wound around histones b. Linear strands of RNA wrapped around histones c. Tertiary structure of DNA wound around histones d. Quaternary structure of DNA wound around histones ____ 6. In Mendel's law of separation, the first-filial generation is: a. Recessive. c. Heterozygous. b. Homozygous. d. Autologous. ____ 7. A father carries the Xga trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but none of his sons. What type of inheritance does this represent? a. Autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive b. X-linked dominant d. Autosomal recessive ____ 8. Methods to isolate intact DNA in order for it to be studied include all of the following except: a. pH changes. c. Detergent lysis. b. Enzyme activation. d. Heat treatment. ____ 9. Point mutations include which of the following? a. Substitutions b. Insertions c. Deletions d. Substitutions, insertions, and deletions This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :02:50 GMT -05:00 EMAIL ME: For help with report, Assignment, Essay and thesis writing ____ 10. Which of the following best describes the process of mitosis? a. Cell division by which only one-half of the daughter cells produced are identical to the parent cell b. Cell division of germ cells by which two successive divisions of the nucleus produce cells that contain half the number of chromosomes of somatic cells c. Cell division that produces two daughter cells having the same number of chromosomes as the parent d. Cell division that produces four daughter cells (4n) ____ 11. All of the following processes occur in replication, except: a. The two DNA strands separate via helicase. b. DNA polymerase acts on the 5' to 3' parent strand to produce an anticomplementary duplicate strand. c. DNA polymerase acts on the 3' to 5' parent strand to produce an anticomplementary duplicate strand. d. Replication of the 3' to 5' parent strand is initiated by the enzyme primase, which anneals to the parent strand. ____ 12. Which type of genetic change (mutation) is incapable of reverting back to the original phenotype? a. Duplication c. Recombination b. Deletion d. Insertion ____ 13. In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an "M" allele and an "N" allele expresses both M and N antigens on the RBCs. Which of the following is true? a. M is dominant to N. b. N is dominant to M. c. M an N are codominant alleles. d. M and N are located on the same chromosome. ____ 14. A gene, such as the O gene, that produces no detectable product is called: a. An amorph. c. An allele. b. A trait. d. Recessive. ____ 15. What blood group is the best example of codominantly inherited blood group genes? a. Rh c. Lewis b. MN d. ABO ____ 16. When an individual is said to have blood group A, it refers to the individual's: a. Alleles on the chromosome. c. Phenotype. b. Genotype. d. Haplotype. ____ 17. The two strands of DNA are: _________; one runs in a 5' to 3' direction, and the other runs in a 3' to 5' direction. a. parallel c. somatic b. antiparallel d. zigzag ____ 18. In what stage of mitosis is DNA not actively dividing? a. Interphase c. Metaphase b. Prophase d. Anaphase This study source was downloaded by from CourseH on :02:50 GMT -05:00 ____ 19. How many chromosomes do somatic cells of humans have? a. 46 c. 23 b. 50 d. 100 ____ 20. The diploid chromosome number in humans is: a. 12 c. 46 b. 23 d. 92 ____ 21. Which constituent in the Hardy-Weinberg equation represents the total number of alleles? a. q c. 2pq b. p d. q 2 ____ 22. In which of the following circumstances will Hardy-Weinberg’s principle fail? a. Mutation c. Non-random mating b. Genetic drift d. All the above ____ 23. What amino acid initiates translation by attaching to tRNA? a. Glycine c. Methionine b. Alanine d. Lysine ____ 24. What is meant by the term autosomal? a. Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes b. Trait is carried on sex chromosomes c. Trait is not expressed in the parents d. Organism possesses different alleles for a given characteristic ____ 25. Which of the following best describes classical genetics? a. DNA alteration that is caused by a physical or chemical agent b. Transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring c. Possessing a pair of identical alleles d. The synthesis of RNA from DNA requiring RNA polymerase ____ 26. How is RNA different from DNA? a. RNA usually exists as one strand c. RNA incorporates uracil b. Ribose is substituted for deoxyribose d. All of the above ____ 27. Using the Hardy-Weinberg equation, if a total random population carried the dominant allele E and 20% carried the recessive allele e, what would the total percentage be for the recessive trait ee? a. 64% c. 16% b. 4% d. 0.4% ____ 28. A triple set of nucleotides is a: a. Helix. c. Codon. b. Base. d. Template. ____ 29. A human gamete (egg or sperm) contains how many chromosomes? a. 23 pairs c. 23 chromosomes b. 46 pairs d. 46 chromosomes