AORN PERIOP 101 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024

AORN PERIOP 101 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024 All the following professionals are qualified to provide anesthesia to a patient EXCEPT: a) anesthesiologist b) CRNA c) anesthesiology assistant d) operating surgeon - ANSWER d) operating surgeon Of the following, which is not used to secure airway: a) ET tube b) LMA c) nasal cannula d) oral airway - ANSWER c) nasal cannula The perioperative team should know the location of equipment stored in the OR and in the department. Equipment that the anesthesia provider may request includes: a) video laryngoscopy devices b) fiberoptic bronchoscopes c) suction tips and devices d) all of the above - ANSWER d) all of the above General Anesthesia - ANSWER a drug-induced reversible state of unconsciousness, it includes amnesia, analgesia, loss of responsiveness, decreased stress response, and loss of skeletal muscle reflexes to varying degree Regional Anesthesia - ANSWER an injection of local anesthetics near nerve fibers to cause reversible loss of sensation over an area of the body, common examples include spinal, epidural, and peripheral nerve blocks Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC) - ANSWER when an anesthesia provider monitors the patient, administers sedatives and other agents as needed, and provides medical services as needed Moderate Sedation - ANSWER the administration of sedative, analgesic, and/or anxiolytic agents by a physician or under physician supervision. Depending on state laws and hospital policies, a perioperative nurse may be able to administer this type of anesthesia Local Anesthesia - ANSWER The infiltration or topical administration of agents to anesthetize a part of the body. It is typically used for minor procedures, does not involve an anesthesia provider, and does not involve sedation. A perioperative nurse monitors the patient and provides supportive care if needed. The phases of general anesthesia, in order, are: a) induction, maintenance, emergence b) emergence, maintenance, induction c) maintenance, emergence, induction d) induction, emergence, maintenance - ANSWER a) induction, maintenance, emergence Propofol - ANSWER IV induction agent etomidate - ANSWER IV induction agent methohexitol - ANSWER IV induction agent IV induction agent - ANSWER ketamine sevoflurane with or without nitric oxide - ANSWER inhaled induction agent Succinylcholine - ANSWER short-acting muscle relaxant cisatracurium - ANSWER intermediate-acting muscle relaxant atracurium - ANSWER intermediate-acting muscle relaxant rocuronium - ANSWER intermediate-acting muscle relaxant vecuronium - ANSWER intermediate-acting muscle relaxant pancuronium - ANSWER long-acting muscle relaxant isoflurane - ANSWER used for inhalation maintenance desflurane - ANSWER used for inhalation maintenance total iv anesthesia (TIVA) - ANSWER a technique for maintaining anesthesia using infusions of short-acting IV agents without inhalation anesthetics. Propofol and remifentanil are often used for TIVA. Reversal agent for succinylcholine - ANSWER none! neostigmine - ANSWER reversal for muscle relaxant (except succinylcholine) edrophonium - ANSWER reversal for muscle relaxant (except succinylcholine) sugammadex - ANSWER reversal agent for rocuronium, vecuronium, and pancuronium flumazenil - ANSWER reversal agent for benzos (midazolam) naloxone - ANSWER reversal agent for narcotics (fentanyl) which of the following type of airway maintenance usually requires muscle relazants? a) spontaneous respiration b) mask ventilation c) laryngeal mask airway d) endotracheal intubation - ANSWER d) endotracheal intubation When should cricoid pressure be released? a) if the patient cou