MLT ASCP BOC Exam Solved 100% Correct
MLT ASCP BOC Exam Solved 100% Correct A 50-year-old woman who has been receiving busulfan for three years for CML becomes anemic. Lab tests reveal: Thrombocytopenia, Many peroxidase-negative blast cells in the peripheral blood, Bone marrow hypercellular in blast transformation, Markedly increased bone marrow TdT. Which complication is this patient most likely experiencing? (Answer: - Acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which is the most common cause of an abnormality in hemostasis? (Answer: - Quantitative abnormality of platelets. A leukocyte count and differential on a 40-year-old Caucasian male reveals...this data represents: (Answer: - Absolute neutropenia. A patient has a normal PTT and a prolonged APTT using a kaolin activator. The APTT corrects to normal when the incubation is increased. These results suggest the patient has: (Answer: - Fletcher factor deficiency (prekallikrein.) Elevation of the TOTAL granulocyte count above 9.0 x 10^3/uL is termed: (Answer: - Absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis. The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin H is: (Answer: - Heat instability test. PT - 20 sec. Thrombin time - 13 sec. APTT - 55 secs. APTT plus aged serum - Corrected. APTT plus absorbed plasma - Not corrected. Circulatory inhibitor - None present. Which coagulation factor is deficient? (Answer: - Factor X.
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