Test bank for Advanced Health Assessment And Clinical Diagnosis 6th Edition By Dains

Chapter 1: Clinical reasoning, differential diagnosis, evidence-based practice, and symptom ana Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Which type of clinical decision-making is most reliable? A. Intuitive 1. Analytical 2. Experiential D.Augenblick ____ 2. Which of the following is false? To obtain adequate history, health-care providers must be: A. Methodical and systematic 1. Attentive to the patient’s verbal and nonverbal language 2. Able to accurately interpret the patient’s responses D.Adept at reading into the patient’s statements ____ 3. Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except: Test bank for Advanced Health Assessment And Clinical Diagnosis 6th Edition By Dains A. Chief complaint 1. History of the present illness 2. Current vital signs D.All of the above are essential history components ____ 4. Which of the following is false? While performing the physical examination, the examiner must be able to: A. Differentiate between normal and abnormal findings 1. Recall knowledge of a range of conditions and their associated signs and symptoms 2. Recognize how certain conditions affect the response to other conditions D.Foresee unpredictable findings ____ 5. The following is the least reliable source of information for diagnostic statistics: A. Evidence-based investigations 1. Primary reports of research 2. Estimation based on a provider’s experience D.Published meta-analyses ____ 6. The following can be used to assist in sound clinical decision-making: 1. Algorithm published in a peer-reviewed journal article 2. Clinical practice guidelines 3. Evidence-based research 4. All of the above ____ 7. If a diagnostic study has high sensitivity, this indicates a: A. High percentage of persons with the given condition will have an abnormal result 1. Low percentage of persons with the given condition will have an abnormal result 2. Low likelihood of normal result in persons without a given condition D.None of the above ____ 8. If a diagnostic study has high specificity, this indicates a: A Low percentage of healthy individuals will show a normal result . 1. High percentage of healthy individuals will show a normal result 2. High percentage of individuals with a disorder will show a normal result D.Low percentage of individuals with a disorder will show an abnormal result ____ 9. A likelihood ratio above 1 indicates that a diagnostic test showing a: 1. Positive result is strongly associated with the disease 2. Negative result is strongly associated with absence of the disease 3. Positive result is weakly associated with the disease 4. Negative result is weakly associated with absence of the disease ____ 10. Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations, settings, and/or patients? A.Clinical practice guideline 1. Clinical decision rule 2. Clinical algorithm Chapter 2. Evidence-based health screening Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The first step in the genomic assessment of a patient is obtaining information regarding: A. Family history 1. Environmental exposures 2. Lifestyle and behaviors D.Current medications ____ 2. An affected individual who manifests symptoms of a particular condition through whom a family with a genetic disorder is ascertained is called a(n): A. Consultand 1. Consulband 2. Index patient D.Proband ____ 3. An autosomal dominant disorder involves the: A. X chromosome 1. Y chromosome 2. Mitochondrial DNA D.Non-sex chromosomes ____ 4. To illustrate a union between two second cousin family members in a pedigree, draw: A. Arrows pointing to the male and female 1. Brackets around the male and female 2. Double horizontal lines between the male and female D.Circles around the male and female ____ 5. To illustrate two family members in an adoptive relationship in a pedigree: A. Arrows are drawn pointing to the male and female 1. Brackets are drawn around the male and female 2. Double horizontal lines are drawn between the male and female D.Circles are drawn around the male and female ____ 6. When analyzing the pedigree for autosomal dominant disorders, it is common to see: 1. Several generations of affected members 2. Many consanguineous relationships 3. More members of the maternal lineage affected than paternal 4. More members of the paternal lineage affected than maternal ____ 7. In autosomal recessive (AR) disorders, individuals need: A.Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease 1. Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease 2. Two mutated genes to acquire the disease D Two mutated genes to become carriers . ____ 8. In autosomal recessive disorders, carriers have: A.Two mutated genes; one from each parent that cause disease 1. A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease 2. A single gene mutation that causes the disease D. One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease ____ 9. With an autosomal recessive disorder, it is important that parents understand that if they both carry a mutation, the following are the risks to each of their offspring (each pregnancy): A.50% chance that offspring will carry the disease 1. 10% chance of offspring affected by disease 2. 25% chance children will carry the disease D. 10% chance children will be disease free ____ 10. A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will: A.Not be affected by the disorder herself 1. Transmit the disorder to 50 % of her offspring (male or female) 2. Not transmit the disorder to her daughters D. Transmit the disorder to only her daughters ____ 11. In creating your female patient’s pedigree, you note that she and both of her sisters were affected by the same genetic disorder. Although neither of her parents had indications of the disorder, her paternal grandmother and her paternal grandmother’s two sisters were affected by the same condition. This pattern suggests: A.Autosomal dominant disorder 1. Chromosomal disorder 2. Mitochondrial DNA disorder D. X-linked dominant disorder ____ 12. A woman affected with an X-linked recessive disorder: A.Has one X chromosome affected by the mutation 1. Will transmit the disorder to all of her children 2. Will transmit the disorder to all of her sons D. Will not transmit the mutation to any of her daughters ____ 13. Which of the following are found in an individual with aneuploidy? A.An abnormal number of chromosomes 1. An X-linked disorder 2. Select cells containing abnormal-appearing chromosomes D. An autosomal recessive disorder ____ 14. The pedigree of a family with a mitochondrial DNA disorder is unique in that: A.None of the female offspring will have the disease 1. All offspring from an affected female will have disease 2. None of the offspring of an affected female will have the disease D. All the offspring from an affected male will have disease ____ 15. Which population is at highest risk for the occurrence of aneuploidy in offspring? A.Mothers younger than 18 1. Fathers younger than 18 2. Mothers over age 35 D. Fathers over age 35 ____ 16. Approximately what percentage of cancers is due to a single-gene mutation? 1. 50% to 70% 2. 30% to 40% 3. 20% to 25% 4. 5% to 10% ____ 17. According to the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA): A. NPs should keep all genetic information of patients confidential 1. NPs must obtain informed consent prior to genetic testing of all patients 2. Employers cannot inquire about an employee’s genetic information D.All of the above ____ 18. The leading causes of death in the United States are due to: A. Multifactorial inheritance 1. Single gene mutations 2. X-linked disorders D.Aneuploidy ____ 19. Which of the following would be considered a “red flag” that requires more investigation in a patient assessment? A. Colon cancer in family member at age 70 1. Breast cancer in family member at age 75 2. Myocardial infarction in family member at age 35 D.All of the above ____ 20. When patients express variable forms of the same hereditary disorder, this is due to: A. Penetrance 1. Aneuploidy 2. De novo mutation D.Sporadic inheritance ____ 21. Your 2-year-old patient shows facial features, such as epicanthal folds, up-slanted palpebral fissures, single transverse palmar crease, and a low nasal bridge. These are referred to as: A.Variable expressivity related to inherited disease 1. Dysmorphic features related to genetic disease 2. De novo mutations of genetic disease D. Different penetrant signs of genetic disease ____ 22. In order to provide a comprehensive genetic history of a patient, the NP should: A.Ask patients to complete a family history worksheet 1. Seek out pathology reports related to the patient’s disorder 2. Interview family members regarding genetic disorders D.All of the above Chapter 3. Abdomen Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. When performing abdominal assessment, the clinician should perform examination techniques in the following order: A.Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation 1. Inspection, percussion, palpation, and auscultation 2. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation D.Auscultation, palpation, percussion, and inspection ____ 2. The clinician should auscultate the abdomen to listen for possible bruits of the: A.Aorta 1. Renal artery 2. Iliac artery D.All of the above ____ 3. On abdominal examination, which of the following is assessed using percussion? A.Liver 1. Kidneys 2. Pancreas D.Esophagus ____ 4. In abdominal assessment, a digital rectal examination is performed to assess for: A.Hemorrhoids