HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM QUESTION & ANSWERS 2024

Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found? - correct answer Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - correct answer Ankyloglossia When is tooth eruption complete? - correct answer Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing jaw When does mixed dentition begin? - correct answer Eruption of first permanent tooth How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - correct answer 20 The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - correct answer The first statement is true and the second is false Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - correct answer reduced permeability Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar? - correct answer Distolingual Which is true regarding the height of contour? - correct answer Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? - correct answer 14 primary; 10 permanent Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - correct answer line angle Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incised edge or angle? - correct answer IV Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - correct answer Oblique Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - correct answer Mandibular HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM QUESTION & ANSWERS 2024 Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? - correct answer VII Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - correct answer mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - correct answer Sublingual Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - correct answer Synovial Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion? - correct answer autonomic; sympathetic Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? - correct answer First statement is true second statement is false Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - correct answer Aciduric Anaerobe bacteria - correct answer grow only in the absence of oxygen Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - correct answer capsule Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - correct answer Psychrophils Endotoxin is a virulence property of - correct answer gram-negative bacteria When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - correct answer enter host cells before they can multiply Which is treated with nystatin? - correct answer Candidiasis Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine? - correct answer Anti-HBs Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves? - correct answer I Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis? - correct answer Streptococcus Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Ethambutol B. Isoniazid C. Nizoral D. Rifampin - correct answer C. Nizoral Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - correct answer Repaired congenital heart disease It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic predication? - correct answer Renal dialysis shunt A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - correct answer take medication four times a day Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO REFILLS" - correct answer schedule II controlled substance Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? - correct answer Cobalamin (vitamin B-12) Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - correct answer Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure) Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - correct answer Kale! ;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - correct answer Albuterol short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack Lipitor is a/an - correct answer statin (lowers cholesterol levels) Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium. - correct answer Both the statement and reason are correct but not related. Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb calcium. Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - correct answer Steak, brown rice, and corn Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli, strawberries, and cantaloupe