PTCB EXAM TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST WITH RATIONALE

PTCB EXAM TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST WITH RATIONALE Multiple choice What is the route of administration for a prescription with the following directions: "i supp pr q 6 hr prn"? A. Orally B. Rectally C. Urethrally D. Vaginall {{Correct Ans- B. Rectally Rationale: "pr" means per rectum. What is the meaning of PDA? A. Personal digital aid B. Personal digital assistant C. Physician digital assistant D. Pharmaceutical data assistant {{Correct Ans- B. Personal digital assistant Rationale: PDA is an acronym for personal digital assistant. Which of the following medications is not a bronchodilator? A. Albuterol B. Ipratropium C. Montelukast D. Salmeterol {{Correct Ans- C. Montelukast Rationale: Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene inhibitor. Which organ can be affected by a condition of flutter? A. Esophagus B. Heart C. Intestine D. Kidneys {{Correct Ans- B. Heart Rationale: A flutteris a type of arrhythmia inwhich the patient's heart is beating at 200 to 350 beats/min. Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"? A. Dispensing date, printed name,signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature B. Dispensing date,signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product company with lot number C. Dispensing date,signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the product sold, and lot number of the product sold D. Dispensing date, buyersignature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and expiration date of the product {{Correct Ans- A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature Rationale: The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requiresthat an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of the community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48 hours. The patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the purchase and the patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity of the product, and selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist must sign his or her name in the book as the sellerof the "exempt narcotic." What does "K" represent on a patient's medical chart? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Phosphate D. Sodium {{Correct Ans- B. Potassium Rationale: K is potassium. Ca is calcium, Na issodium, and PO4 is phosphate. How many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of Accutane (isotretinoin)? A. 1 day B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 180 days {{Correct Ans- B. 7 days Rationale: All Accutane (isotretinoin) prescriptions must be handwritten by the prescriber and filled within 7 days of beingwritten with the approved yellow seal attached and having no refills authorized. A pharmacy contracts to buy the majority of its formulary from a particular wholesaler. What type of agreement is this? A. Preferred agreement B. Preferred vendor contract C. Preferential agreement D. Prime vendor agreement {{Correct Ans- D. Prime vendor agreement Rationale: A prime vendor agreement is one in which a pharmacy agrees to purchase almost exclusively from a specific vendor. The vendor in turn provides the pharmacy with discounted pricing. What is the gross profit for 30 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg with an acquisition cost of $7.85/100 tablets, AWP = $9.93/100 tablets, and a retail price of $15.99/30 tablets? A. $6.06 B. $8.14 C. $13.01 D. $13.63 {{Correct Ans- D. $13.63 Rationale: Gross profitis equal to the selling price minusthe price paid for the product. The acquisition price isthe price paid for the product. The acquisition cost is based on 100 tablets and must be prorated for 30 tablets ($7.85 × 30/100 = $2.36). SP ($15.99) - AC ($2.36) = $13.63. Which of the following pieces of legislation is known as the "prescription drug amendment"? A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment B. Hatch-Waxman Amendment C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment D. Mail Order Pharmacy Amendment {{Correct Ans- A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment clearly defined prescriptions and over-the counter medications. A prescription medication is required to bear the federal legend on the container. Over-the-counter medications are considered safe to use without a physician's supervision. Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part B C. Medicare Part C D. Medicare Part D {{Correct Ans- D. Medicare Part D Rationale: Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpati ent hospital care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for physician services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage (Part C) allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that provides additional services at a higher cost. For which ofthe following drugsisit mandatory that a customer receive a PPI? A. Amoxicillin B. Lithonate C. Premarin D. Synthroid {{Correct Ans- C. Premarin Rationale: All prescriptions containing estrogensrequire the pharmacy to provide the patient with a patient product insert (PPI). What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding? A. DEA B. FDA C. GMP D. OBRA '90 {{Correct Ans- C. GMP Rationale: GMP stands for good manufacturing practices and is adhered to for compounding prescriptions. The DEA is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. The FDA ensures food and medications are pure, safe, and effective.OBRA '90 discusses drug utilization review and counseling patients. What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)? A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies {{Correct Ans- A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies Rationale: Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual purchase of medications for hospitals. Which of the following has been identified by MEDMARX as the leading cause of medication errors? A. Illegible handwriting B. Knowledge deficit C. Performance deficit D. Transcription inaccuracy {{Correct Ans- C. Performance deficit Rationale: MEDMARX has identified performance deficit as the largest cause of errors. What do the three sets of numbers in an NDC number reflect? A. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and the year an NDA was filed B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size C. Drug manufacturer, drug name, and drug strength D. None of the above {{Correct Ans- B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size Rationale: The Drug Listing Act of 1972 provided a unique numbering systemfor each product. This 11-digit number identifiesthe drug manufacturer, the drug product, and the package size. Which of the following can a pharmacy technician do to reduce medication errors? A. Document all clarification on prescription orders. B. Initial all prescriptions. C. Keep work area clutter free. D. Visually check the medication in the bottle. {{Correct Ans- C. Keep work area clutter free. Rationale: A clutter-free work area reduces the possibility of a medication being placed in the wrong bottle or the wrong label being applied to the prescription bottle. It is the responsibility of pharmacists to document issuesraised during the prescription filling process,to initial all filled prescriptionsfor which they were responsible, and to check the final product. How often should a patient change his or her Duragesic patch? A. Every 24 hours B. Every 48 hours C. Every 72 hours D. Once a week {{Correct Ans- C. Every 72 hours Rationale: Duragesic patches should be changed every 72 hours (3 days). Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. Expiration date of prescription B. Patient's name C. Physician's DEA number D. Physician's name {{Correct Ans- C. Physician's DEA number Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required only on the hard copy of a prescription or controlled substance; the DEA number is not required on the prescription label of control substances. Which of the following automated systemsis commonly used to manage controlled substances? A. Baker cells B. Bar coding C. Pyxismachine D. Both b and c {{Correct Ans- D. Both b and c Rationale: Bar coding is used to identify the name, strength, dosage form, lot number, and expiration date of a medication and is one of the more common methods to manage controlled substance levels. Pyxis systems are used in decentralized systems to solve medicationmanagement issues that include narcotic diversion and poor record keeping. WhichDAW code should be used if a physician authorizesthe use of a genericdrug but the patient requests a brand name drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 {{Correct Ans- C. 2 What isthe genericname for Prevacid? A. Esomeprazole B. Lansoprazole C. Omeprazole D. Pantoprazole {{Correct Ans- B. Lansoprazole Rationale: Brand names and their generics are asfollows: Prevacid—lansoprazole, Nexium—esomeprazole, Prilosec—omeprazole, and Protonix—pantoprazole. What isthe meaning of HSA? A. Health Safety Administration B. Health savings account C. Health Savings Administration D. Health spending account {{Correct Ans- B. Health savings account Rationale: A health savings account (HSA) combines the benefits of both traditional and Roth 401(k)s and IRAs for medical expenses. Taxpayers receive a 100% income tax deduction on annual contributions. They may withdraw HSA funds tax free to reimburse themselves for qualified medical expenses, and they may defer taking such reimbursements indefinitely without penalties. Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. The name and address ofthe pharmacy B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances C. The patient's name D. The expiration date of the medication {{Correct Ans- B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required on all prescriptions for a controlled substance, not all prescriptions. How often must an inventory of control substances be taken? A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Yearly D. Every 2 years {{Correct Ans- D. Every 2 years Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act requires that a pharmacy perform a biennial inventory of all controlled substances stocked in a pharmacy. An exact count must be performed on Schedule II medications, and an estimated count must be done on Schedules III to V. An institution may perform an inventory more frequently ifrequired by eitherstate law or organizational policy. Which of the followingwould be a correct DEA number for Dr. A. Shedlock? A. AB135426 B. BS2456879 C. FS1578926 D. MS2254235 {{Correct Ans- B. BS2456879 Rationale: The firstlettermay be either an A or B. The second letteristhe firstletterof the prescriber's last name. Next, add the numbers in the first,third, and fifth position. Then add the numbers in the second, fourth, and sixth positions; multiply this sum by two. Add both sums together, and the correct numbershould be the last number. What is the concentration of ½ NS? A. 0.45% B. 0.5% C. 0.9% D. 1% {{Correct Ans- A. 0.45% Rationale: 1/2 normal saline (NS) has a concentration of 0.45%, and NS has a concentration of 0.9%. Which of the following interpretations of the signa "ii gtt bid os" is correct? A. Instill 2 drops in right ear twice per day. B. Instill 2 drops in left eartwice per day. C. Instill 2 drops in right eye twice per day. D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice perday. {{CorrectAns- D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice perday. Rationale: "os" means left eye, which is the only difference among all of the interpretations. Which of the followingmust appear on a unit-dose product label? A. Dose strength of the medication B. Expiration date of the medication C. Medication name D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: Unit-dose labels require the name and strength of the medication, expiration date of the medication, manufacturer's name, and lot number. Which of the following medicationsis not an angiotensin II antagonist? A. Avapro B. Capoten C. Cozaar D. Diovan {{Correct Ans- B. Capoten Rationale: Capoten is a beta-blocker; Avapro, Cozaar, and Diovan are angiotensin II antagonists. A pharmacist asks you to prepare 250 mL of a 25% acetic acid solution. How much acetic acid would you need to make this preparation? A. 62.5 mg B. 6250 mg C. 62.5 g D. 6250 g {{Correct Ans- C. 62.5 g Rationale: Solve using the following formula: Final volume × % Strength (expressed as a decimal) will yield the amount of active ingredientin grams: 250 mL × 0.25 = 62.5 g. How long is a DEA Form 222 valid after it has been written? A. 72 hours B. 30 days C. 60 days D. 180 days {{Correct Ans- C. 60 days Rationale: A DEA Form 222 is valid for 60 days after being written by the pharmacistin charge at a pharmacy. How many 500-mg doses can be prepared from a 10-g vial of cefazolin? A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 50 {{Correct Ans- B. 20 Rationale: Convert 10 g to milligrams: 10 g × 1000 mg/g = 10,000 mg.Divide the total weight by the weight per dose: 10,000 mg/500 mg per dose = 20 doses. Which of the following percents is considered a wrong dose error? A. 1% B. 3% C. 5% D. 8% {{Correct Ans- D. 8% Rationale: A wrong dose error occurs when a dose is above or below the intended dose by more than 5%. Which of the following items should be reviewed when receiving a new prescription from a patient? A. The date ofthe prescription is valid. B. The name, strength, and medication dosage are appropriate for the patient. C. The prescriber's information is valid. D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: Reviewing the prescription upon receiptis the firststep in eliminating prescription errors. Which of the following terms refers to the part of the computer that you can actually touch? A. Data B. Hardware C. Software D. User {{Correct Ans- B. Hardware Rationale: Hardware refers to the physical components of the computersystem. Data are the facts the computer uses,software providesthe instructionsto the computer to performan application, and a user is an individual using a computer. Which of the following drugs does not need to be packaged in a child-resistant package? A. Digoxin B. Ibuprofen C. Fluoride tablets D. Simvastatin {{Correct Ans- C. Fluoride tablets Rationale: The Poison Prevention Act of 1970 permits certain medications (e.g., nitroglycerin, fluoride tablets, and mebendazole) to be dispensed in packages that are not child resistant. What is a drug monograph? A. A picture of the drug from the manufacturer B. A price listfor the drug from the manufacturer C. Literature on the drug D. Literature on the drug manufacturer {{Correct Ans- C. Literature on the drug Rationale: A monograph is literature on a specific drug by the drug manufacturer that may include a description, indications, contraindications, adverse effects, and warnings. The PDR is an example of a collection of drug monographs. What is the established (official) United States adopted name of a drug called? A. Brand name B. Genericname C. Proprietary name D. Trade name {{Correct Ans- B. Generic name Rationale: The generic or nonproprietary name is the official name for a medication. Brand, proprietary, and trade name are synonymous. They are protected by patents. What type of inventory identifies the actual quantity of a specific medication on hand at a particular time? A. Biennial inventory B. Initial inventory C. Perpetual inventory D. Physical inventory {{Correct Ans- C. Perpetual inventory Rationale: A perpetual inventory is an ongoing inventory that identifiesthe quantity of a specific medication at a particular point in time. Howmany grams of boric acid are required to make 4 fl oz of the following boric acid solution? Boric acid 50 g Purified waterqs to make 1000 mL A. 0.006 g B. 0.06 g C. 0.6 g D. 6 g {{Correct Ans- D. 6 g Rationale: Using a proportion, calculate the amount found in 4 fl oz (120 mL): 50 g/1000 mL = X g/120 mL, where X = 6 g. Which of the following workplace issues has been identified as a cause of medication errors by MEDMARX? A. Multitasking B. Similar medication labels C. Stress D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: Common workplace issuesinclude noise, stress, multitasking, similar medication labels (font size and color of font), and medication labelsthat are difficultto read. Why are medications stored in opaque bottles? A. Drugs are sensitive to heat. B. Drugs are sensitive to humidity. C. Drugs are sensitive to light. D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- C. Drugs are sensitive to light. Rationale: Many medications are sensitive to light, so their composition may begin to disintegrate. The amber or opaque bottle prevents the lightfrom causing the medication to decompose. Which of the following is an NCPDP Standard for electronic prescribing processes? A. BillingUnit Standard B. Medicaid Subrogation C. Universal Claim Form D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: NCPDP standards include the following: Batch Transaction Standard, Billing Unit Standard, Financial Information Reporting Standard, Formulary and Benefit Standard, Medicaid Subrogation, Member Enrollment Standard, Payment Reconciliation Payment Tape Format, Pharmacy Identification Cards, Post-adjudication Standard, Prescription Transfer Standard, Telecommunication Standard, Universal Claim Form, and Medication History Standard. What doesthe term "od" mean? A. Right ear B. Right eye C. Left ear D. Left eye {{Correct Ans- B. Right eye Rationale: "od" is derived from the Latin term "oculo dextro," which is translated to right eye. The abbreviation "ou" is found on a prescription. What does it mean? A. Both ears B. Both eyes C. Both feet D. Both hands {{Correct Ans- B. Both eyes Rationale: "ou" means both eyes. Which of the following medications does not need to be in a child-resistant container? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Levothyroxine C. Pro-Air HFA D. Warfarin {{Correct Ans- C. Pro-AirHFA Rationale: Pro-AirHFA is an example of a metered-dose inhaler and does not need to be packaged in a childresistant container. Which of the following products is not used to treat hyperlipidemia? A. Aspirin B. Fibric acid derivatives C. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors D. Metamucil {{Correct Ans- A. Aspirin Rationale: Aspirin does not have the ability to reduce the level of cholesterol in the body. Fibric acid derivatives and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are used to treat hyperlipidemia. Metamucil has been shown to lower cholesterol in the body. Which of the following drugs is not an MAOinhibitor? A. Bupropion B. Phenylzine C. Selegiline D. Tranylcypromine {{Correct Ans- A. Bupropion Rationale: Bupropion (Wellbutrin or Zyban) is not an MAO inhibitor. MAO inhibitors include phenelzine (Nardil), selegiline (Eldepryl), and tranylcypromine (Parnate). Which reference book contains the USP and NF drug standards and dispensing requirements? A. Drug Topics Orange Book B. Drug Topics Red Book C. USP DI, volume I D. USP DI, volume III{{Correct Ans- A. Drug Topics Orange Book Rationale: The Drug Topics Orange Book provides USP and NF drug standards and dispensing requirements. The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy: Hctz 50mg #30 i tab po qod c OJ How many days will the prescription lastthe patient? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60 {{Correct Ans- D. 60 Rationale: 30 tablets are dispensed, but 1 tabletis being taken every other day; therefore, it will last 60 days. Which of the following is a goal of technology used in pharmacies? A. Improve the quality of prescription filling processes. B. Process prescriptions faster. C. Reduce errors in cost-effective ways. D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: Work that was previously performed in a pharmacy by pharmacists and pharmacy technicians is being performed through technology and automation, allowing both pharmacists and pharmacy technicians to focus on other patient-related areas. Which of the following methods may a pharmacy use to address medication errors? A. Conduct educational programs. B. Discuss medication errors as part of regular meetings. C. Publish summaries of errors that have occurred in staff newsletters. D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: Preventing medication errors can be facilitated through educational means. Providing this information to the staff draws attention to the seriousness ofthe problemand waysto prevent these errors from occurring in the future. Howmany grams of 20% zincoxide ointment would contain 10 g of zincoxide? A. 5 g B. 10 g C. 20 g D. 50 g {{Correct Ans- D. 50 g Rationale: Use the formula: Final weight × percent (expressed as a decimal) = Amount of active ingredient Both the percent (20%) and the amount of active ingredient (10 g) are provided in the problem. Placing this information in the equation, one finds: Final weight = Amount of active ingredient/percent (as a decimal) Final weight = 10 g/0.2 or 50 g What is the meaning of CSAR? A. Controlled Studies Are Reviewed B. Controlled Substance Administration Record C. Controlled Substance Audit and Review D. Cost, sales, allocation, and resources {{Correct Ans- B. Controlled Substance Administration Record Rationale: CSAR means Controlled Substance Administration Record. CSARs are used in hospitals and other institutional facilities to acknowledge the administration of a controlled substance to a patient. The administrator must sign his or her name and the time of administration. What does a red C indicate on a prescription? A. Prescription has been canceled by the physician B. Prescription has been copied and transferred to another pharmacy C. Prescription has been processed by the pharmacy and has been picked up by the patient D. Prescription is a controlled substance {{Correct Ans- D. Prescription is a controlled substance Rationale: A red C stamped on a prescription indicatesthat the medication is a controlled substance. All filled controlled substance prescriptions must be stamped with a 1-inch red C. Which drug classification should not be taken with potassium-sparing diuretics? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta-blockers C. Calcium channel blockers D. Nitrates {{Correct Ans- A. ACE inhibitors Rationale: ACE inhibitors have a potassium-sparing effect, which, if taken with potassium-sparing diuretics, may result in hyperkalemia. Which of the following is the part of the computer that does all of the computing? A. Central processing unit (CPU) B. Hardware C. Random access memory (RAM) D. Software {{Correct Ans- A. Central processing unit (CPU) Rationale: The CPU performs all calculations,the hardware is the part of the computer you can touch, RAM is storage memory, and software provides electronic communication to the system. Which of the following isthe propersize of a sterilizing filter? A. 0.2 microns B. 0.45 microns C. 1.2 microns D. 5.0 microns {{Correct Ans- A. 0.2 microns Rationale: A sterilizing filter's pores cannot be any larger than 0.2 microns in size. Which ofthe following is not found in a total nutrient admixture? A. Amino acid B. Dextrose C. Lipids D. Protein {{Correct Ans- D. Protein Rationale: Amino acids, dextrose, and lipids are use in preparing a total nutrient admixture, which is a parenteral form of nutrition for patients with specific conditions. Proteins are not used in this preparation. Which of the following can be used to treat asthma? A. β2 agonists B. Cromolyn C. Corticosteroids D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: β2 agonists, cromolyn, and corticosteroids are all treatments for asthma. What is the maximum number of refills allowed on Accutane prescriptions? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12 {{Correct Ans- A. 0 Rationale: Prescriptions for Accutane (isotretinoin) may not have refills. The patient must return to see the physician on a monthly basis and be provided with a new written prescription. Which of the following types of containers is a single-unit container intended for administration other than parenteral? A. Hermetic container B. Single-unit container C. Unit-dose container D. Unit-of-use container {{Correct Ans- C. Unit-dose container Rationale: The USP defines a unit-dose container as a single-unit container intended for administration other than parenteral. A hermetic container is impervious to air or gas. A single-unit container is designed to hold a quantity of drug product intended for administration as a single dose. A unit-of-use container contains a specific quantity of a drug product that is intended to be dispensed as such without further modification except for appropriate labeling. Which of the following terms refers to an insurance company's use of three different copays? A. Donut hole B. Dual copay C. Online adjudication D. Tiered copay {{Correct Ans- D. Tiered copay Rationale: A tiered copay system develops a copay for generic drugs, brand name drugs, and medications that may not be part of the formulary or considered a lifestyle drug. What is the brand name forsertraline? A. Celexa B. Paxil C. Prozac D. Zoloft {{Correct Ans- D. Zoloft Rationale: Sertraline is the generic name for Zoloft. The generic namesfor the other branded medications are as follows: Celexa—citalopram, Paxil—paroxetine, and Prozac—fluoxetine. Which of the following is a federal program for patients olderthan 65 years of age or with certain diseases? A. ADC B. Medicaid C. Medicare D. Worker's compensation {{Correct Ans- C. Medicare Rationale: Medicare is a federal program for individuals older than age 65 years. Medicaid is a federal program administered by the state for individuals (families) who meet specific income guidelines. Workers' compensation is for individuals who are injured while working. Which of the following drugs is not available as an OTC product? A. Ibuprofen B. Naproxen sodium C. Ranitidine D. Tramadol {{Correct Ans- D. Tramadol Rationale: Ibuprofen is available OTC as Motrin and Nuprin, naproxen sodium is Aleve, and raniti dine is Zantac. Tramadol is the prescription product known as Ultram. How many tablets need to be dispensed to a patientif the directions are "i tab po tid for one month"? A. 3 B. 30 C. 90 D. 100 {{Correct Ans- C. 90 Rationale: "tid" meansthree times a day, and a month is equal to 30 days. 3 tablets/day × 30 days/month = 90 tablets. The abbreviation "ou" is found on a prescription. What does it mean? A. Both ears B. Both eyes C. Both feet D. Both hands {{Correct Ans- B. Both eyes Rationale: "ou" means both eyes. A patient applied a heating pad to an area where he had applied a fentanyl transdermal patch to his skin, causing the skin to release all of the medication at once, causing an overdose. What type of error occurred? A. Human error B. Product defect error C. Physician prescribing error D. Technical failure from improper application {{Correct Ans- D. Technical failure from improper application Rationale: A technical error occurs as a result of applying the medication improperly. Who determines the eligibility requirements for the federally funded Medicaid program? A. Federal government B. Health and Human Services C. State government D. The Joint Commission {{Correct Ans- C. State government Rationale: Medicaid is a federally funded program that is administered by the states. Each state determines the eligibility requirementsfor participation. Which of the following is the primary reason employees do not report prescription errors when they are discovered? A. They fear being punished. B. It did not hurt the patient. C. The institution does not have a procedure to report prescription errors. D. They do not know who they should tell about the error. {{Correct Ans- A. They fear being punished. Rationale: The fear of punishment (probation, suspension, or termination) prevents many individuals from reporting prescription errors. A pharmacy is provided with a 5% discount if it purchases $1,000,000 in medications during the calendar year. How much will the pharmacy actually pay for the $1,000,000 in inventory? A. $50,000 B. $95,000 C. $950,000 D. $1,000,000 {{Correct Ans- C. $950,000 Rationale: Multiply the cost of the purchases by the discount percent ($1,000,000 × 0.05 = $50,000) to obtain the amount of the discount. Subtract the amount of the discount from the total purchase ($1,000,000 - $50,000 = $95,000), which isthe actual amount paid for the inventory. A drug is available in the following strengths and dosage forms: 125-mg tablets, 250-mg capsules, and 125-mg/5 mL liquid. A child weighs 55 lb, and the recommended dose is 10mg/kg/24 hr, which is to be given in either 6- or 12-hr intervals. Which ofthe followingwould not be an appropriate regimen? A. One 125 mg tablet every 12 hr B. One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr C. One teaspoon of 125 mg/5 mL liquid every 12 hr D. ½ of a 125 mg tablet every 6 hr {{Correct Ans- B. One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr Rationale: The patient would be receiving 500 mg/day instead of 250 mg/day, which is twice the amount prescribed by the physician Which of the following medications needs to be packaged in a child-resistant container unless requested by a patient? A. Albuterol inhaler B. Cephalexin 500-mg capsules C. Ortho Novum 7-7-7 D. Nitroglycerin {{Correct Ans- B. Cephalexin 500-mg capsules Rationale: Cephalexin capsulesmust be dispensed in a child-resistant container unless the physician or patient requests itor the patient is institutionalized and the medication is being administered to the patient. Oral inhalers, oral contraceptives, and nitroglycerin are a few of the medicationsthat do not need to be placed in a child-resistant container. Which of the following sources of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill the prescription? A. Check the name of the medication on the prescription with the name on the medication bottle. B. Check the NDC number on the prescription label and the medication bottle. C. Check the original prescription for the strength ofthe medication and make sure itisthe same as the strength on the bottle. D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: Medication errors can occur because of look-alike medication names and similar labeling. Checking all of the information mentioned may reduce prescription errors. Which of the following is not an advantage of health information technology? A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur B. Improved communication and health care delivery C. Improvement in reimbursement processes D. Ability to track the effectiveness of treatment options and quality of care {{Correct Ans- A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur Rationale: Answers b, c, and d are all advantages of health information technology. Alert fatigue occurs when the user is continually receiving alerts regarding medication interactions, which results in the user ignoring the alerts. Which of the following products is not available as a transdermal patch? A. Catapres B. Duragesic C. Nitroglycerin D. Tegretol {{Correct Ans- D. Tegretol Rationale: Tegretol is available as a chewable tablet, an oral tablet, and a suspension. As a transdermal dosage form, Catapres is known as Catapres TTS and needs to be changed weekly; Duragesic is a Schedule II medication, which providesfentanyl as a narcotic analgesic and lasts for 3 days; and nitroglycerin is known as Nitro-dur or Nitro-disc. Which law is being violated if a prescription is dispensed without a valid prescription? A. Controlled Substances Act of 1970 B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment C. FDCA 1938 D. OBRA 90 {{Correct Ans- B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: If a prescription is dispensed without a valid prescription, the Durham-Humphrey Amendment is being violated. If a patient is experiencing a dry, nonproductive cough, what classification of drug should the patient take? A. Antihistamine B. Antitussive C. Decongestant D. Expectorant {{Correct Ans- B. Antitussive Rationale: Whereas antitussives are used in the treatment of a dry, nonproductive cough, expectorants are used if a patient has mucus or phlegm. What type of drug requires a DEA number? A. Controlled substance B. Investigational drug C. Legend drug D. OTC {{Correct Ans- A. Controlled substance Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act requires that all prescriptions for controlled substances have the physician's DEA number on them. Under which controlled drug schedule is zolpidem classified? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V {{Correct Ans- C. Schedule IV Rationale: Zolpidem (Ambien) is a Schedule IV drug under the Controlled Substances Act of 1970. Which of the following istrue regarding the storage of CIImedications in a pharmacy? A. CII medicationsmust always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet. B. CII medications must be stored separately from CIII, CIV, and CV medications. C. CII medications may be dispersed on the shelves with CIII, CIV, and CV medications D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- A. CII medicationsmust always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet. Rationale: CII medications must be stored either in a locked safe or cabinetto reduce theft. Which of the followingwould not be a correct auxiliary label for a patient taking doxycycline? A. Avoid dairy products B. Avoid sunlight C. Not to be taken by pregnant women or children younger than age 9 D. Take on an empty stomach {{Correct Ans- A. Avoid dairy products Rationale: Doxycycline is the only tetracycline that can be taken with dairy products. What does AWP represent? A. Actual warehouse price B. Actual wholesale price C. Average wholesale price D. Average wholesale promotion {{Correct Ans- C. Average wholesale price Rationale: AWP stands for average wholesale price and is a term used in determining costs and calculating the profitability of a product. Which of the following is required for a pharmacy to participate in a third-party reimbursement program? A. DEA number B. NABP number C. NPI number D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- C. NPI number Rationale: HIPAA mandates that all health care providers possess a National Provider Identifier (NPI) number. A pharmacy technician is preparing heparin 25,000 units in 500 mL of D5W. What concentration should be on the label? A. 50 units/mL B. 75 units/mL C. 100 units/mL D. 125 units/mL {{Correct Ans- A. 50 units/mL Rationale: Set up the following proportion: 25,000 units/500 mL= X units/1 mL, where X = 50 units. Which of the following is not a required text in a pharmacy? A. A copy ofthe Controlled Substances Act B. Orange Book C. PDR D. USP-NF {{Correct Ans- C. PDR Rationale: The PDR is not a required reference in a pharmacy. All pharmacies must maintain a library for reference. Which of the following drug classifications will not interact with oral contraceptives? A. Antibiotics B. Anticonvulsant agents C. Antifungal agents D. Beta-blockers {{Correct Ans- D. Beta-blockers Rationale: Beta-blockers do not have a drug interaction with oral contraceptives. Antibiotics, anticonvulsants, and antifungal agents may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. How many inches inside a laminar airflow hood should one prepare a sterile product? A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 12 {{Correct Ans- B. 6 Rationale: One must be at least 6 inches inside of the laminar airflow hood to use proper aseptic technique. Which of the following drugs would be administered to a patientif he orshe had received an overdose of heparin? A. Aspirin B. Phytonadione C. Protamine sulfate D. Warfarin {{Correct Ans- C. Protamine sulfate Rationale: 1mg of protamine sulfate will neutralize 90 to 120 units of heparin. Where would you prepare hazardous drugs in a pharmacy? A. In a biologicalsafety hood B. In a horizontal laminar airflow hood C. In a vertical laminar airflow hood D. On an ointmentslab {{Correct Ans- A. In a biologicalsafety hood Rationale: Hazardous drugs are prepared in a biological safety hood, IVs in a horizontal flow hood, antineoplastics in a vertical flow hood, and various extemporaneous products using an ointment slab. Which of the following is not a side effect of glucocorticoids? A. Hypotension B. Hypokalemia C. Impaired wound healing D. Peptic ulcer disease {{Correct Ans- A. Hypotension Rationale: Glucocorticoidsmay cause hypertension from sodium retention, not hypotension. Which drug classification ends in -pril? A. ACE inhibitors B. Benzodiazepines C. Corticosteroids D. H2 antagonists {{Correct Ans- A. ACE inhibitors Rationale: The suffix -pril designates the medication is an ACE inhibitor used in the treatment of cardiovascular disease. What does the abbreviation FDA refer to? A. Food and drug abuse B. Food and Drug Administration C. Food and Drug Association D. Free Drug Assistance {{Correct Ans- B. Food and Drug Administration Rationale: FDA stands for Food and Drug Administration. What type of balance is used to weigh quantities less than 120 mg? A. Class A balance B. Class B balance C. Counterbalance D. Triple-beambalance {{Correct Ans- A. Class A balance Rationale: A class A (class III) balance is used to weigh quantities less than 120 mg. Counterbalances can weigh quantities up to 5 kg. What isthe meaning of DX on a patient's chart? A. Date of birth B. Diabetes C. Diagnosis D. Dispense {{Correct Ans- C. Diagnosis Rationale: DX means diagnosis. How many 150-mg clindamycin capsules are required to compound a prescription reading: "Clindamycin 2%, propylene glycol 5%, isopropyl alcohol qs ad 480 mL"? A. 10 B. 64 C. 96 D. 112 {{Correct Ans- B. 64 Rationale: Calculate the amount of active ingredient by multiplying the final volume by the percent of clindamycin expressed as a decimal (480 mL × 0.02 = 9.6 g). Convert 9.6 g to milligrams by multiplying 9.6 g × 1000 mg/g = 9600 mg. Divide the total weight of clindamycin by the weight of each capsule (9600 mg/150 mg per capsule = 64 capsules). How many prescription errors occur each year? A. 100,000 B. 500,000 C. 1,000,000 D. Unknown {{Correct Ans- D. Unknown Rationale: There is no accurate number of the number of prescription errors that occur each year because many errors are not discovered or reported. Which of the following is considered a "high-alert" medication? A. Amoxicillin B. Atorvastatin C. Fluoxetine D. Levothyroxine {{Correct Ans- D. Levothyroxine Rationale: The Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) has identified levothyroxine as being involved in a very large number of prescription errors. What type of mortar and pestle should be used in mixing liquid compounds? A. Glass B. Latex C. Porcelain D. Wedgwood {{Correct Ans- A. Glass Rationale: Glass mortars and pestles are best used for mixing liquids because of the smooth surface, and they will not stain like porcelain or Wedgwood. What type of unit-dose systemisreferred to as a punch card, a bingo card, or a blisterpack? A. Blended unit-dose system B. Modified unit-dose system C. Modular cassette D. Multiple medication packages {{Correct Ans- B. Modified unit-dose system Rationale: A modified unit-dose system is a drug distribution system that combines unit-dose medications blister packaged onto a multiple-dose card instead of being placed into a box. They are referred to as punch cards, bingo cards, or blister packs and may contain 30, 60, or 90 units on one card. What does the term "overhead" refer to in business? A. All ofthe costs associated with a business B. Ceilings C. Inventory D. Payroll {{Correct Ans- A. All ofthe costs associated with a business Rationale: Overhead isthe sum of all the expensesin a business. Examples of overhead found in a pharmacy include the salaries of all the employees, cost of inventory, expense -associated utilities, supplies, licenses, and computer hardware and software. Which two drug classifications should not be taken together? A. TCAs and MAOIs B. TCAs and SSRIs C. MAOIs and SSRIs D. TCAs and lithium {{Correct Ans- C. MAOIs and SSRIs Rationale: MAOIs and SSRIs should not be taken together. An MAOI must be washed out of the body before SSRI treatment is initiated. This washing-out period is approximately 2 weeks. Which of the following is an explanation for why a drug manufacturer would recall a particular drug product? A. Drug batch was contaminated B. Drug labeling is wrong C. Drug product was not packaged or produced properly D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: The Pure Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 defined both adulteration and misbranding. Adulteration is concerned about the medication's purity, and misbranding involvestruthfuldisclosure through labeling. The drug batch being contaminated is an example of adulteration. Incorrect drug labeling and the drug product being packaged or produced incorrectly are examples of misbranding. Which of the following medications is not indicated for osteoporosis? A. Actonel B. Evista C. Fosamax D. Naprosyn {{Correct Ans- D. Naprosyn Rationale: Naprosyn is not indicated for osteoporosis. What is the correct meaning forsigna in the following prescription: "Timoptic 0.25% 15 mL, i gtt ou bid"? A. Instill 1 drop in each ear twice per day. B. Instill 1 drop in each eye twice per day. C. Instill 1 drop in left eye twice per day. D. Instill 1 drop in left ear twice perday. {{Correct Ans- B. Instill 1 drop in each eye twice per day. Rationale: "Ⅰ" is the Roman numeral for one, "gtt" means drop, "ou" means each eye, and "bid" meanstwice per day. Instill 1 drop in each eye twice a day. By what route should Phenergan 25 mg suppository be taken? A. PO B. PR C. SL D. TOP {{Correct Ans- B. PR Rationale: Suppositories are inserted into body orificessuch as the rectum, urethra, and vagina. PR is an abbreviation meaning "per rectum." What would be the infusion rate for a 50 mg/mL magnesium sulfate solution to provide 1.2 g/hr? A. 0.4 mL/hr B. 2.5 mL/hr C. 20 mL/hr D. 24 mL/hr {{Correct Ans- D. 24 mL/hr Rationale: Convert grams to milligrams (1.2 g × 1,000 mg/g = 1,200 mg). Use a proportion to calculate the volume to be infused (50 mg/1 mL = 1200 mg/X mL, where X = 24 mL). Which of the following is not an example of a decentralized automated dispensing system? A. McKesson Acudose-Rx B. McKesson Robot-RXD C. Omnicell SureMed D. Pyxis MedStation {{Correct Ans- B. McKesson Robot-RXD Rationale: McKesson Acudose-Rx,Omnicell SureMed, and Pyxix MedStation are examples of centralized dispensing systems. What does "U&C" mean when billing prescriptions? A. Unusual customer B. Unusual and customary C. Usual customer D. Usual and customary {{Correct Ans- D. Usual and customary Rationale: U&C means the charge isthe usual and customary charge, which a patient would pay if his or her third - party payer were not involved in the transaction. Which of the following drug classifications would not be included on automatic stop orders in a hospital? A. Antibiotics B. Anticoagulants C. Antihistamines D. Diabetic medications {{Correct Ans- D. Diabetic medications Rationale: Medications for the treatment of diabetes are not included on automatic stop orders in hospitals. What should be done in preparing a prescription for etoposide? A. Flush the remaining contents down a sink or toilet. B. Wear protective clothing if you are allergic to etoposide. C. Place labels on the container so it has a professional appearance. D. Prepare itin a biologicalsafety cabinet.{{Correct Ans- D. Prepare itin a biologicalsafety cabinet. Rationale: Etoposide needsto be prepared in a biologicalsafety cabinet because itis a plant alkaloid used in the treatment of cancer. What doesthe "tall man" listissued by the ISMP and the FDA highlight? A. Dissimilarities in drug names B. Dissimilarities in nonproprietary drug names C. Dissimilarities in proprietary drug names D. Similarities in drug names{{Correct Ans- A. Dissimilarities in drug names Rationale: The "tall man" list capitalizes the dissimilarities in similarly spelled drug names, both proprietary and nonproprietary drugs. Which of the following isthe genericname for Percocet? A. Acetaminophen + codeine B. Acetaminophen + hydrocodone C. Acetaminophen + oxycodone D. Acetaminophen + propoxyphene {{Correct Ans- C. Acetaminophen + oxycodone Rationale: Percocet is oxycodone + acetaminophen; Tylenol C codeine is acetaminophen + codeine, Vicodin -Lortab is hydrocodone + acetaminophen, and Darvocet N is propoxyphene + acetaminophen. What does the pharmacy abbreviation MDI mean? A. Measured density of intestines B. Metered-dose inhaler C. Measured-dose insulin D. Mild diabetes insipidus {{Correct Ans- B. Metered-dose inhaler Rationale: An MDI is a metered-dose inhaler. What is the trade name for guaifenesin? A. Benadryl B. Robitussin C. Tessalon D. Tussionex {{Correct Ans- B. Robitussin Rationale: Guaifenesin is the generic name for Robitussin or Humibid. The generic names for the other products are follows: Benadryl—diphenhydramine, Tessalon—benzonatate, and Tussionex—hydrocodone and chlorpheniramine. Which of the following orders calls forreceiving a specificdrug at a specified time each day? A. ASAP order B. prn order C. Standing order D. STAT order {{Correct Ans- C. Standing order Rationale: A standing order calls for receiving a specific drug at a specified time each day. Which of the following forms is associated with hazardous materials? A. DEA Form 106 B. IND C. SDS D. PPI{{Correct Ans- C. SDS Rationale: A Safety Data Sheet must be provided to a purchaser of hazardous materials. Which of the following is defined as a reportsummarizing all itemsthat were not purchased on bid? A. 80/20 report B. Compliance report C. PAR report D. Velocity report {{Correct Ans- B. Compliance report Rationale: A compliance report is a report summarizing all items that were not purchased on bid. An 80/20 report is a detailed summary of purchasing history based on the 80/20 rule, designating medications that account for 80% of the drug costs for that period oftime. A PAR report identifiesthe PARlevel foreach medication in stock. A velocity report provides a measure of the rate of work accomplished per iteration unit of time. Which of the following auxiliary labels would not be appropriate for a prescription of sulfasalazine? A. Avoid sunlight B. Drink plenty of water C. Keep refrigerated D. May discolor urine {{Correct Ans- C. Keep refrigerated Rationale: Sulfasalazine may cause photosensitivity to an individual if he orshe is exposed to directsunlight; one should drink plenty of water to prevent crystals from developing in the kidneys. Sulfasalazine has the tendency to change the color of one's urine from a yellow to an orange-brown color. Acetaminophen with codeine is classified in what drug schedule? A. CII B. CIII C. CIV D. CV {{Correct Ans- B. CIII Rationale: Acetaminophen with codeine is a Schedule III controlled substance. Which of the following medications would be used prophylactically in the treatment of migraine headaches? A. Butorphanol B. Maxalt C. Propranolol D. Sumatriptan {{Correct Ans- C. Propranolol Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a prophylactic agent used to prevent migraine headaches. Butorphanol (Stadol), Maxalt, and sumatriptan (Imitrex) are agents used to abort migraine headaches. Which of the followingmedicationsisthe generic name for Biaxin? A. Azithromycin B. Clarithromycin C. Dirithromycin D. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate {{Correct Ans- B. Clarithromycin Rationale: Clarithromycin is the generic name for Biaxin. Azithromycin (Zithromax or Z-Pak), dirithromycin (Dynabac), and erythromycin ethylsuccinate (EES) are all macrolide antibiotics, as is clarithromycin. Which ofthe following patientsmust have a patient profile? A. All patients B. All new patients C. All patients who have transferred prescriptions into a pharmacy D. All patients receiving controlled substance prescriptions {{Correct Ans- B. All new patients Rationale: OBRA '90 requires that all patients receiving prescriptionsin a pharmacy have a patient profile. What is Microsoft Windows? A. Central processing unit B. Computer hardware C. Input device D. Operating system {{Correct Ans- D. Operating system Rationale: Microsoft Windows is an example of an operating system. Which of the following vitamins is measured in international units? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E {{Correct Ans- D. Vitamin E Rationale: Vitamin E is measured in international units. The other three are measured in milligrams. What is the meaning of the Latin abbreviation "Rx" on a prescription? A. Insigna B. Sig C. Take D. Write on label {{Correct Ans- C. Take Rationale: Rx means to take a given product of a given strength and quantity. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for an individual with hypertension? A. Diphenhydramine B. Ibuprofen C. Loperamide D. Pseudoephedrine {{Correct Ans- D. Pseudoephedrine Rationale: Pseudoephedrine is a central nervous stimulant that excites the heart, resulting in the heart's pumping harder at an increased rate. Which of the following would require a potassium supplement? A. Aldactone B. Dyazide C. Dyrenium D. Lasix {{Correct Ans- D. Lasix Rationale: An individual taking Lasix as a diuretic may lose potassium and require a potassium supplement. Aldactone, Dyazide, and Dyrenium are potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following is not a medical doctor? A. Chiropractor B. Ophthalmologist C. Psychiatrist D. Veterinarian {{Correct Ans- A. Chiropractor Rationale: Chiropractors are not medical doctors and are unable to prescribe medications, an ophthalmologist's specialty is eye diseases, psychiatrists are concerned with affective disorders, and veterinarians are medical doctors for animals. What doesIV mean? A. Intravenous B. Intravenous piggyback C. Intravenous push D. Involuntary {{Correct Ans- A. Intravenous Rationale: IV is an approved pharmacy abbreviation for intravenous. What is the nonproprietary name for Deltasone? A. Lithium B. Methylprednisolone C. Prednisolone D. Prednisone {{Correct Ans- D. Prednisone Rationale: Prednisone is the generic name for Deltasone. The generic names for the other products are follows: lithium—Eskalith,methylprednisolone—Medrol, prednisolone—Pediapred. Which step in the processing of a prescription will inform the pharmacy that a prescri ption claim has been rejected? A. Adjudication B. Counseling C. Entering information into the computer D. Translating the prescription {{Correct Ans- A. Adjudication Rationale: Adjudication is the process of electronically billing an insurance carrier for payment of a prescription. What does the acronym PAR affect in the practice of pharmacy? A. Compounding B. Customerservice C. Drug utilization evaluation D. Inventory management {{Correct Ans- D. Inventory management Rationale: PAR stands for periodic automatic replacement and is used in inventory management in the practice of pharmacy. Which of the following describes the systemapproach to medication errors? A. It holds the individual(s) involved in the error responsible for the error. B. It involves analyzing, categorizing, and evaluating the error to develop processes and procedures to prevent the error form occurring again. C. It warns the entire the entire pharmacy department when an error occurs. D. It resolves the issue as soon as possible. {{Correct Ans- B. It involves analyzing, categorizing, and evaluating the error to develop processes and procedures to prevent the error form occurring again. Rationale: A system approach attempts to find the cause of incident and work to find a solution to preventthe error from occurring again. It is not used to punish the individual(s). What are the four elements of medical and pharmaceutical nomenclature? A. Prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining vowels B. Prefixes, suffixes, key words, and combining vowels C. Prefixes, suffixes, key words and combining consonants D. Prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining consonants {{Correct Ans- A. Prefixes,suffixes,root words, and combining vowels Rationale: A prefix occurs before the root word, which isfollowed by a suffix. Vowels combine the prefix,root word, and suffix together. Which of the following medications is not identified as a "high-alert medication" by the ISMP? A. Amoxicillin B. Heparin C. Metformin D. Propranolol {{Correct Ans- A. Amoxicillin Rationale: Drug classifications considered as "high-alert classifications" include antithrombotic agents(heparin), oral hypoglycemic agents (metformin), and adrenergic antagonists (propranolol). Which of the following is a disadvantage of automation? A. A minimum number of prescriptions must be filled daily to be cost effective. B. It allows pharmacist to provide clinical skills to patients and reduce the amount of time checking prescriptions. C. It is capable of counting and prefilling containers of medication. D. It leads to improved efficiency and accuracy in prescription filling and dispensing. {{Correct Ans - A. A minimum number of prescriptions must be filled daily to be cost effective. Rationale: Pharmacy automation is expensive to implement and therefore requires a predetermined number of prescriptions processed on a daily basis to be cost effective. Which of the following is an example of an automated dispensing system? A. Centralized system B. Modernized system C. Process control devices D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- A. Centralized system Rationale: A centralized system is located in a central pharmacy that is used to improve the manual unit-dose cartfill process. Which of the following termsrefersto the price a pharmacy pays for a drug after all discounts and shipping costs have been applied? A. Actual acquisition cost (AAC) B. Average wholesale price (AWP) C. Discounted price D. Premium {{Correct Ans- A. Actual acquisition cost (AAC) Rationale: The actual acquisition cost is the price that is paid for a drug after all discounts and costs have been applied; average wholesale price is the national calculated average price that a pharmacy might pay for a given package size of a drug. Which of the following is a criterion for a drug to be placed on the ISMP's "do not crush" list? A. Enteric-coated tablet B. Film-coated tablet C. Skin irritant D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- D. All ofthe above Rationale: The ISMP has established a list of medications that should never be crushed before administration because of a variety of reasons, including slow-release dosage form, extended-release dosage form, enteric-coated dosage form, may irritate the mucous membranes, rate of absorptionmay be increased, coating of tablet may release the drug over a period of time, taste, skin irritant, liquid filled sublingual dosage form, film-coated dosage form, effervescent tablet,teratogenic effect, and local anesthesia of the oral mucosa. What does the abbreviation "hs" mean on a prescription? A. At bedtime B. Hours C. House D. None of the above {{Correct Ans- A. At bedtime Rationale: The abbreviation "hs" means at the hour of bed or hour ofsleep. A hospital may adopt forspecific medications, such as antibiotics, an automatic stop-order policy that requires a physician to reorder the medication after a predetermined period. Which of the following is an acronym for this process? A. ASO B. ASOP C. Autostop D. Stop {{Correct Ans- A. ASO Rationale: An automatic stop order is abbreviated ASO. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription tomake 4 oz of a 10% solution and has a 25% stock solution on hand. Howmuch diluent will be added to fill this prescription? A. 7.2 mL B. 48 mL C. 72 mL D. 300 mL {{Correct Ans- C. 72mL Rationale: Use the following equation: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV), where IS is initialstrength or 25%; IV is the initial volume being calculated; FS is final strength or 10%; and FV is final volume, which is 4 fl oz or 120 mL. This calculation yields 48mL. Subtract the initial volume (48 mL) from the final volume (120 mL), which will yield the amount of diluent(72 mL). Which of the following is not a reason to return medications to the warehouse or manufacturer? A. Drug damaged during delivery B. Drug expired C. Drug incorrectly reconstituted D. Drug recall {{Correct Ans- C. Drug incorrectly reconstituted Rationale: The pharmacy has terms or agreement with a warehouse, wholesaler, or drug manufacturer regarding purchases and returns. A pharmacy that fails to reconstitutes a drug properly is not able to return the medication to the warehouse, wholesaler or drug manufacturer for credit under the terms and agreements for drug purchases and returns. A manufacturer's invoice totals $500.00 with the term 3% net. How much should be remitted to the manufacturer if it is paid in 30 days? A. $15.00 B. $150.00 C. $485.00 D. $500.00 {{Correct Ans- C. $485.00 Rationale: The term 3% net means that a purchaser can reduce a purchase by 3% if he orshe pays within a stated period (30 days in this case). Multiplying $500.00 by 0.03 = $15.00 (amount of discount). Invoice - Discount = Amount to be remitted ($500.00 - $15.00 = $485.00). Which organization replaced the HCFA? A. CMS B. DEA C. FDA D. TJC {{Correct Ans- A. CMS Rationale: The Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS) replaced the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA). Which of the following interpretations ofthe signa "ii gtt os bid" is correct? A. Instill 2 drops in right ear twice a day. B. Instill 2 drops in right eye twice a day. C. Instill 2 drops in left ear twice a day. D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice a day. {{Correct Ans- D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice a day. Rationale: "Ⅱ" is the Roman numeral for 2, "gtt" is drops, "os" isthe left eye, and "bid" istwice per day. Which of the following organizations administers Medicare? A. Blue Cross Blue Shield Association (BCBSA) B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) C. Health and Human Services (HHS) D. Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) {{Correct Ans- B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Rationale: The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) administers Medicare. Why is itimportant to follow the procedures of an institution? A. Following procedures will result in a promotion. B. Following procedures will resultin a pay increase. C. Following procedures will prevent errors from occurring in a pharmacy. D. The PTCB and State Boards of Pharmacy follow up with pharmacy technicians to ensure that they are following procedures. Failure to follow procedures may result in either a suspension or revocation of certification. {{Correct Ans- C. Following procedures will prevent errors from occurring in a pharmacy. Rationale: Procedures are a way to avoid errors in performing a specific task. Where should used needles be placed after use? A. In a biohazard container B. In a red plastic bag C. In a sharps container D. With normal trash {{Correct Ans- C. In a sharps container Rationale: A used needle should be disposed in a red plastic sharps container to prevent individuals from being injured by needles. What isthe meaning of SDS? A. SafetyData Sheets B. Material Sterile Delivery System C. Miscellaneous Secondary Drug Supplier D. Morphine sulfate depot system {{Correct Ans- A. Safety Data Sheets Rationale: SDS means Safety Data Sheets. SDS contain information about hazardous products. What does Syrup USP contain? A. Alcohol inwater B. Oleaginous in water C. PEG in water D. Sucrose in water {{Correct Ans- D. Sucrose in water Rationale: According to the United States Pharmacopoeia, Syrup USP contains sucrose (sugar) dissolved in water. Which of the following standard development organizations has developed and maintained standards for each step in the prescribing process? A. NCPDP B. SCRIPT C. PSTAC D. All ofthe above {{Correct Ans- A. NCPDP Rationale: NCPDP is the only standards development organization that focuses on pharmacy services. NCPDP works to develop and maintain standards for each step in the prescribing process. NCPDP has established e - prescribing standards known as SCRIPT. SCRIPT standards facilitate the transfer of prescription data among pharmacies, prescribers, intermediaries, and payers. PSTAC has established HIPPA-compliant Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) billing codes for pharmacists when performing Medication Therapy Management (MTM) services. How many times may a controlled substance with five refills be transferred to another pharmacy? A. 0 times B. 1 time C. 5 times D. 6 times {{Correct Ans- B. 1 time Rationale: Controlled substances can be transferred only once. Who makes notations and signs medication administration records (MARs) in an institution? A. Doctors B. Nurses C. Pharmacists D. Pharmacy technicians {{Correct Ans- B. Nurses Rationale: Nurses administermedication to patients and therefore would document the MAR. Physicians diagnose and prescribe, pharmacists dispense, and pharmacy technicians assist pharmacists in performing their duties. What type of pharmacy literature provides the original reports of scientific, clinical, technical, and administrative research projects? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. None of the above {{Correct Ans- A. Primary Rationale: Primary literature provides the original reports of scientific, clinical, technical, and administrative research projects. How would a prescriber write a prescription for "Zolpidem5mg at bedtime as needed"? A. Zolpidem5 mg q hs prn B. Zolpidem5 mg q hs ad C. Zolpidem5 mg q 9 PM ad. lib. D. Zolpidem5 mg q hs qs{{Correct Ans- A. Zolpidem 5 mg q hs prn Rationale: At bedtime is abbreviated "hs," and as needed is abbreviated "prn. Which DEA form is used to report a theft of controlled substances? A. DEA Form 41 B. DEA Form 106 C. DEA Form 222 D. DEA Form 224 {{Correct Ans- B. DEA Form 106 Rationale: DEA Form 106 is used to report the theft of controlled substances, DEA Form 41 is used for the destruction of controlled substances, DEA Form 222 orders Schedule II medications, and DEA Form 224 registers a pharmacy with the DEA. How long must controlled substance records be retained according to federal law? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 7 years {{Correct Ans- C. 2 years Rationale: The Federal Controlled Substances Act requires that all pharmacy records be maintained for a minimum of 2 years. What is the direction for airflow in a horizontal laminar airflow hood? A. From the back of the hood to the front B. From the bottom of the hood to the top C. From the front of the hood to the back D. From the top ofthe hood to the bottom {{Correct Ans- A. From the back ofthe hood to the front Rationale: Outside air flows into the back of the horizontal airflow hood, through the hood's HEPA filter, and out toward the opening, and the air isrecirculated into the room. A vertical airflow hood issimilar to the horizontal except that the air cannot be recirculated into the room. This air goes through two HEPA filters and isreleased into an open area or is vented to the outside. You have received aprescription for amoxicillin 500 mgpo. The patient is unable to chew orswallow capsules or tablets. Howmany millilitersshould be given in each dose ifthe concentration is 125 mg/5 mL? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 {{Correct Ans- D. 20 Rationale: The problemcan be solved using a proportion: 125 mg/5 mL = 500 mg/X mL, where X = 20 mL. Wh