ACLS EXAM 70 QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS (2024)

ACLS EXAM 2024 Which two rhythms are shockable? correct answer: V-fib and pulseless V-tach How many breaths if someone has an advanced airway (intubated)? correct answer: one breath every 6 seconds What is the goal for depth of compressions? correct answer: At least 2 inches Titrate oxygen to maintain a saturation of correct answer: 94% or greater When would atropine be contraindicated with bradycardia? correct answer: If someone has had a heart transplant, their vagas nerve would have been cut. Atropine works on the vagas nerve. Dose of Epi when given IV infusion for bradycardia if atropine is ineffective correct answer: 2-10 mcg per minute (titrate to pt response) Dose of Epinephrine for IV infusion for post-cardiac arrest (ROSC) hypotension correct answer: 0.1-0.5 mcg/kg What should you do immediately after ROSC? correct answer: Optimize ventilation and oxygenation Targeted temperature managment correct answer: 32 to 36 degrees C. If patient is unconscious, keep their body temperature during this range for the first 24 hours to preserve neuro function. How do you treat stable tachycardia? correct answer: With medications (Adenosine 6 mg first dose, 12 mg second dose) How do you treat unstable tachycardia? (ex. systolic <90...) correct answer: Synchronized cardioversion Which quality improvement component of systems of care best describes the capture and review of data related to resuscitation education, processes, and outcomes? correct answer: Measurement Which one of the following is an interdependent component of systems of care? correct answer: Structure Which is the max interval you should allow for an interruption in chest compressions correct answer: 10 seconds What is an effect of excessive ventilation? correct answer: Decreased cardiac output What is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt? correct answer: Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions How does complete chest recoil contribute to effective CPR? correct answer: Allows maximum blood return to the heart What is an advantage of a systematic approach to patient assessment? correct answer: Reduces the changes of missing important signs and symptoms What is the first step in the systematic approach to patient assesssment? correct answer: Initial impression Which action is part of the secondary assessment of a conscious patient? correct answer: Formulate a differential diagnosis Which is one of the H's and T's that represent a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and other emergency cardiopulmonary conditions? correct answer: Hypothermia What should be the primary focus of the CPR Coach on a resuscitation team? correct answer: To ensure high quality CPR The CPR Coach Role can be blended into which of the following roles? correct answer: The monitor/defibrillator Which of the following is a responsibility of the CPR coach? correct answer: Coordinating compressor switches What is the recommended compression rate for high-quality CPR? correct answer: 100-120 compressions per minute Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS assessment? correct answer: 5-10 seconds Which is a component of high-quality CPR? correct answer: Depth of a least 2 inches Which component of high-quality CPR directly affects chest compression fraction? correct answer: Interruptions To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag? correct answer: Once every 6 seconds Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway? correct answer: Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible Which action is likely to cause air to enter the victim's stomach (gastric inflation), during bag-mask ventilation? correct answer: Ventilating to quickly In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube? correct answer: Continuous waveform capnography What are the 3 signs of clinical deterioration that would cause activation of a rapid response system? correct answer: Symptomatic hypertension, unexplained agitation, and seizure What is the purpose of a rapid response team (RRT) or medical emergency team (MET)? correct answer: Identify and treat early clinical deterioration What is the difference between stable angina and unstable angina? correct answer: Stable angina involved chest discomfort during exertion. What is a classic symptom of acute ischemic chest discomfort? correct answer: Pain radiation down the left arm What is the most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infarction? correct answer: Retrosternal chest pain What is one goal of therapy for patients with ACS? correct answer: Relief of ischemic chest discomfort What is the recommended dose of aspirin if not contraindicated? correct answer: 162-325 mg Which is a contraindication to the administration of aspirin for the management of a patient with ACS? correct answer: Recent GI Bleed What is the initial drug therapy for ACS? correct answer: Oxygen if needed, aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine A patient without dyspnea has sign an ACS. There are no obvious signs of heart failure. You assess a noninvasively monitored oxyhemoglobin saturation. Which patient should receive supplemental oxygen? correct answer: 88% Which clinical finding represents a contraindication to the administration of nitroglycerin? correct answer: Systolic BP of 84 What is one major sign of a patient having a stroke? correct answer: Facial droop What are the major types of strokes? correct answer: Ischemic and hemorrhagic What is the most common type of stroke? correct answer: Ischemic What stroke screen was used in the stroke video? correct answer: CPSS Which is a sign or symptom of a stroke correct answer: Trouble speaking Why is it important for EMS personnel to alert the receiving facility stroke team as soon as possible? correct answer: Reduce the time interval to definitive care What is the highest priority once the patient has reached the emergency department? correct answer: CT Scan What is the goal for neurologic assessment by the team or designee and non-contrast CT or MRI performed after hospital arrival? correct answer: 20 minutes What is the primary window for the administration of fibrinolytic therapy, timed from the onset of symptoms correct answer: 3 hours In which situation does bradycardia require treatment? correct answer: Hypotension A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next? correct answer: 12 mg A 57- year old women has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 180. She becomes diaphoretic and her blood pressure is 80/66. What should you do? correct answer: Perform electrical cardioversion A patient is in cardiac arrest Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which drug should be administered first? correct answer: Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO