bioethics final exam multiple choice Questions With Complete Solutions

the current laws relating to artificial insemination a. do not forbid artificial insemination b. state that the donor father must provide a potion of the child's support c. provide for the records that relate to the donor to remain open d. clarify the child's legitimacy e. all of the above correct answer: do not forbid artificial insemination the baby M case is an example of a. problems encountered with fertility drugs b. problems relating to the practice of eugentics c. problems encountered as a result of the use of a surrogate d. problems encountered due to involuntary sterilization e. problems encountered as a result of genetics correct answer: problems encountered as a result of the use of a surrogate ethical issue(s) relating to contraception is/are a. dispensing contraceptives in schools receiving federal funds b. requiring sex offenders to undergo sterilization c. providing contraceptives for women on medicaid d. sterilization of mentally incompetent women e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above a miscarriage is the same thing as a/an a. induced abortion b. spontaneous abortion c. drug-induced abortion d. conscience clause e. eugnetics correct answer: spontaneous abortion a genetic disorder that causes severe joint pain, chronic weakness and infections and is more prevalent in people of african heritage is a. tay-sachs b. hemophillia c. cystic fibrosis d. sickle-cell anemia e. cooleys anemia correct answer: sickle-cell anemia genetic testing of the newborn is required by law for a. tay-sachs b. phenylketonuria c. retinoblastoma d. down syndrome e. cooley's anemia correct answer: phenylketonuria a disease that could cause serious birth defects for an unborn child if the pregnant mother is exposed to it during her pregnancy is a. down syndrome b. huntingtons disease c. cystic fibrosis d. rubella e. retinoblastoma correct answer: rubella withdrawing a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus for genetic testing is called a. induced abortion b. eugenics c. amniocentesis d. spontaneous abortion e. drug-induced abortion correct answer: amniocentesis a person that is appointed by the count to defend a lawsuit on behalf of an incapacitated person is a/an a. donor b. surrogate c. AID d. AIH e. guardian ad litem correct answer: guardian ad litem Tay-Sachs disease a. results from an enzyme deficiency b. is more common among people of eastern european descent c. is curable if diagnosed early d. a, b and c e. a and b only correct answer: a and b only the practice of allowing a terminally ill patient to die by forgoing treatment is called a. active euthanasia b. passive euthanasia c. mercy killing d. a and c e. b and c correct answer: passive euthanasia and mercy killing an electroencephalogram is used to a. reverse a coma patients condition b. measure cardiopulmonary function c. measure brain function d. reverse the condition of hypothermia e. reverse the condition of rigor mortis correct answer: measure brain function the uniform determination of death act a. provides a definition of active euthanasia b. provides a definition of brain death c. is also called the doctrine of double effect d. mandates that everyone entering a nursing home must provide a written document stating the care he or she wishes to receive e. discusses the treatments that might be used for a comatose patient correct answer: provides a definition of brain death criteria or standards for death include a. rigor mortis b. hypothermia c. loss of body color d. biological disintegration e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above what is the ethical term used to morally justify the removal of a cancerous uterus from a pregnant patient? a. mercy killing b. extraordinary means c. ordinary means d. doctrine of double effect e. advance directive correct answer: doctrine of double effect another term meaning death is a. comatose b. expired c. proxy d. terminally ill e. hypothermia correct answer: expired a hospice provides for a. palliative care b. pain medications c. in-patient care d. home care e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above extraordinary care means that when caring for a comatose patient, one should include a. CPR and mechanical breathing b. chemotherapy c. turning and hydration d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c the karen ann quinlan case involved a. mercy killing b. removal of hydration from a comatose patient c. removal of a respirator from a comatose patient d. a heart transplant e. court order for a surgical procedure on an incompetent patient correct answer: removal of a respirator from a comatose patient terms referring to heart and pulmonary function include a. cardiac b. comatose c. hypothermia d. cardiopulmonary correct answer: cardiopulmonary Amy F., an indigent person on Medicaid, complained to her friend about having to pay so much extra for her medicines even though she was on medicaid. This gap in medicaid coverage is known as a. MRSA b. the "donut hole" c. injury d. prescription drug abuse e. none of the above correct answer: the "donut hole" MRSA is a. a bacterium b. a standard of measurement for healthcare costs c. difficult to treat with standard types of antibiotics d. a and c e. all of the above correct answer: a and c the most commonly abused drugs, especially by young people looking for a high are a. methadone b. oxyCotin c. vicodin d. all of the above e. none of the above correct answer: all of the above nicole p is a young women who wants to acquire health insurance under the affordable care act. But she is concerned about what the health coverage will actually be. Which of the following will be allowed to Nicole under her new health coverage a. tests for diabetes b. counseling for smoking c. wll-baby visits for her infant son d. mammogram screenings for cancer e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above fraud is an intentional deception or injury to another person that results in damage to a persons reputation or property. Examples of fraud in the healthcare field include a. a doctor or nurse practicing without a license b. false medicare billing c. drinking while driving d. conducting drug tests on groups of people without their knowledge e. a, b and d correct answer: a, b and d which of the following pieces of sage advice is applicable to the healthcare profession a. "honesty is the best policy" b. "when in doubt, throw it out" c. "first do no harm" d. all of the above e. none of the above correct answer: all of the above hospital patients have the following rights a. the right to refuse any treatment b. the right to be moved to another patient room c. the right to be made as comfortable as possible d. all of the above e. none of the above correct answer: all of the above the following are examples of accountable care organizations except a. HMOs b. CDC c. PPOs d. MCOs e. POSs correct answer: CDC some benefits of the accountable care act include a. subsides are offered to help those with low incomes to pay their coverage b. adult children under the age of 26 can remain covered under their parents health plan c. a person cannot be denied coverage due to preexisting medical conditions d. makes more people eligible for medicaid e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above the following are recommended health screenings except a. mammograms b. sexual health c. rotator cuff tears d. dental health e. osteroporosis correct answer: rotator cuff tears under this plan, a healthcare provider is paid a set amount based on the category of care provided to the patient a. AMA b. DRG c. ANA d. HHS e. UNOS correct answer: DRG medicare patients who are members of HMOs may now by law a. not make any deductible payment b. select any physican they wish c. appeal a denial of treatment d. have all their nursing home expenses paid e. none of the above correct answer: appeal a denial of treatment a type of managed care in which the selection of providers is limited to a defined group who are all paid on a modified fee for service basis is an a. exclusive provider organization b. group practice c. preferred provider organization d. health maintenance organization e. sole proprietorship correct answer: exclusive provider organization a legal agreement in which physicians agree to share a facility and staff but not the profits and losses is an a. solo practice b. group practice c. partnership d. associate practice e. none of the above correct answer: associate practice the advantage of a corporation is that is a. offers protection from loss of individual assets b. may offer fringe benefits c. will remain in effect after the death of a member d. offers the opportunity for a large increase in income e. a, b and c only correct answer: a, b and c only a physician who is board certified may be addressees as a. diplomat b. fellow c. partner d. associate e. a and b only correct answer: a and b only MCOs are able to manage cost by a. shifting some financial risk back to the physicians b. shifting some financial risk back to the hospitals c. using a fee for service payment method d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a and b only this federal legislation provides healthcare for indigent persons and is administered by individual states a. medicare b. medicaid c. HMO d. PPO e. COBRA correct answer: medicaid the managed care system a. has a gatekeeper to determine who will receive medical treatments b. provides a mechanism for approval for all nonemergency services c. provides care for a fixed monthly fee d. includes HMOs, PPOs, and EPOs e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above the american college of surgeons confers a fellowship degree upon its applicants a. whenever a surgeon places a request b. when they complete additional training c. when they have documentation of 50 surgical cases during the previous three years d. a, b and c e. b and c only correct answer: b and c only vital statistics from a person life include all of the following except a. pregnancies b. marriages and divorces c. animal bites d. sensitive information such as rape and abuse e. all of the above are considered to be vital statisitcs correct answer: all of the above are considered to be vital statisitcs a coroner does not have to sign a death certificate in the case of a. suicide b. death of elderly persons over the age of 90 c. death occurring less than 24 hours after hospital admission d. death from electrocution e. death of a prison inmate correct answer: death of elderly persons over the age of 90 all of the following vaccines and toxoids are required for children by law except a. measles b. polio c. hepatitis d. a and b only e. a, b and c are all required correct answer: a, b and c are all required the controlled substances act is also known as the d a. drug enforcement administration act b. food and drug administration act c. comprehensive drug abuse prevention and control act d. bureau of narcotics and dangerous drugs act e. none of the above correct answer: comprehensive drug abuse prevention and control act schedule III drugs a. can be refilled by an order over the phone from the office assistant b. are allowed only five refills during a six-month period c. require the DEA number of the physician on the prescription d. require the order to be typed on the prescription form e. all of the above correct answer: are allowed only five refills during a six-month period An EAP program may help an employee cope with a. marital problems b. alcoholism and drug abuse c. criminal charges d. a and b e. a, b and c correct answer: a and b infectious waste a. should be separated from chemical waste at the site of origin b. can be safely removed by a licensed removal facility c. consists of blood and blood products d. may contain the HIV and hepatitis A and B viruses e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above phenobarbital is an example of a. schedule I drug b. schedule II drug c. schedule III drug d. schedule IV drug e. schedule V drug correct answer: schedule IV drug the best method to waste or destroy a narcotic is a. place it in a medical waste container that is clearly marked b. return it to the pharmaceutical company c. flush it down a toliet only if instructed to do so on the packaging d. do it without any witnesses e. none of the above correct answer: flush it down a toliet only if instructed to do so on the packaging elder abuse is clearly defined in the a. food and drug administration act b. controlled substances act of 1970 c. amendment to the older americans act of 1987 d. amendment to the older americans act of 1974 e. none of the above correct answer: amendment to the older americans act of 1987 In most cases, federal laws a. are better than state laws b. are not followed as closely as state laws c. preempt state laws d. are used when state laws are not effective e. none of the above correct answer: preempt state laws title VII of the civial rights act makes it illegal to discriminate because of a. color, race and national origin b. religion c. gender d. income level and education e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c The following acts are covered as amendments under Title VII with the exception of the a. Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 b. Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 c. Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 d. Civil Rights Act of 1991 e. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 correct answer: Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 the occupational safety and health act (OSHA) developed standards in 1991 stating that infectious materials include a. any unidentified body fluid b. amniotic fluid c. saliva in dental procedures d. cerebrospinal fluid e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above the most important act covered under compensation and benefits regulations is said to be the a. workers compensation act b. social security act of 1935 c. federal insurance contribution act of 1935 d. fair labor standards act e. family and medical leave act of 1994 correct answer: fair labor standards act Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act is also referred to as a. equal credit opportunity act of 1957 b. fair credit reporting act of 1971 c. truth in lending act of 1969 d. employee retirement income security act of 1974 e. workers compensation act correct answer: truth in lending act of 1969 when making a claim for payment after a patient has died, the claim must be a. sent in the name of the deceased person to his or her last known address b. sent to the administrator of the estate of the deceased person c. sent to a collection agency with specific instructions to collect the payment from the next of kin d. waived e. none of the above correct answer: sent to the administrator of the estate of the deceased person when using a collection agency to collect outstanding debts from a patient a. allow the collection agency to take a tough, aggressive attitude with patients who owe money b. stay closely involved in the process and make frequent follow up phone calls to the delinquent patient c. it is wise to first threaten the patient that you will sen the unpaid account to a collection agency and the give the patient a second chance d. review the delinquent account with the physician o office manager before turning over the account to agency e. all of the above correct answer: review the delinquent account with the physician o office manager before turning over the account to agency ERISA a. controls employee benefit plans b. controls employee pension plans c. determines eligibility d. determines vesting e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above under the workers' compensation act a. employers must pay into a fund to help cover costs when an employee is hurt b. the previous employer never has to pay for workers compensation c. workers compensation is only administered at the federal level d. employees may not sue non-employees e. there is a guarantee of receiving a full salary whole on workers compensation correct answer: employers must pay into a fund to help cover costs when an employee is hurt medicare and medicaid records should be retained for a. one year b. five years c. 10 years d. for the lifetime of the patient e. for an indefinite period of time correct answer: five years The contents of the medical record include all of the following except a. past medical problems b. informed consent documentation c. patients income level d. family medical history e. a and b correct answer: patients income level medical record entries should be made a. within 60 days of the patients discharge b. at the physicians discretion c. after the patient gives consent d. as soon as possible e. 10 days after the procedure correct answer: as soon as possible the patient a. has the legal right of privileged communication b. owns the medical record c. cannot have any portion of the medical record d. a and c only e. a, b and c correct answer: has the legal right of privileged communication when correcting a written medical error, one should a. use a professional brand of error correction fluid to make the correction b. erase the error and make the correction c. draw a line through the error, write the correction above the error and initial the change d. never make any corrections on the medical record e. none of the above correct answer: draw a line through the error, write the correction above the error and initial the change the medical record is legally owned by the a. patient b. physician c. state d. lawyer e. no one correct answer: physician medical records a. provide a record from birth to death b. provide statistics on health matters c. are legal documents d. a and c only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c all of the following are guidelines to use when sending medical records by fax a. make sure there is a receiver waiting for the fax b. use a cover sheet marked confidential c. send the entire medical record via fax d. do not place the original fax in a trash container e. all fo the above are correct correct answer: send the entire medical record via fax an exception to the open-record laws in some states is/are a. psychiatric history b. confidential medical record information such as HIV test results c. safety and criminal records of persons involved in the education of children d. all of the above e. none of the above correct answer: safety and criminal records of persons involved in the education of children The records of all adult patients should be kept a minimum of a. two years b. five years c. 10 years d. 20 years e. permanently correct answer: 10 years