Testbank DAANCE STUDY QUESTIONS, Entire DAANCE Glossary, DAANCE drugs | updated 2023/24 |

Testbank DAANCE STUDY QUESTIONS, Entire DAANCE Glossary, DAANCE drugs | updated 2023/24 | Nose/nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx - What consists of the upper airway? Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, pulmonary alveoli - What consists of the lower airway? Immediate hypersensitivity response that involves antigen-antibody reactions (IgE) - What is the most severe type of allergic reaction? Liver - What is the largest gland in the body? Pediatric patients - What age group of patients will hypoxia occur much more rapidly in? Bradycardia is a sign relating to hypoxia Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) - What does HIPAA stand for? Ischemia - A decrease in blood flow in the coronary arteries? Can temporarily or permanently damage the heart muscle by decreasing O2 available to the muscle cells? 1 year- Plavix & Aspirin - If a cardiac patient just had stent placement, how long are they required to be on antiplatelet drugs? What are the 2 drugs they usually do together? Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE) aka infectious endocarditis - Type of infection that can further damage heart valves or cause systemic infections? Requires antibiotic prophylaxis P wave - Atrial depolarization (contraction) QRS complex - Ventricular depolarization T wave - Ventricular repolarization (relaxation) Cushing's disease - Type of disease due to excessive secretion of corticosteroid due to a presence of a tumor or from administration of high doses of corticosteriod drugs (ex: Prednisone) Myxedema - Chronic long-term hypothyroidism, most commonly seen in older adults (elderly women) who have had a stroke or stopped taking their thyroid medication Thyroid crisis - Most severe complication of hyperthyroidism from an OMS perspective Hyperthyroidism - Untreated __________ are at an increased risk for outpatient anesthesia and tend to be sensitive to epinephrine in a local anesthetic Diabetes Type 1 - Insulin-dependent Diabetes Type 2 - Non-insulin dependent Elevated LFTs (Liver function tests) - Elevated level of several liver enzymes and bilirubin is often termed? Women - What gender is Propofol more rapidly redistributed in and require 10-15% larger dose? Children - What age group would Propofol redistribute very rapidly, and require at least 50% increase in drug dose? Diffusion hypoxia - What is a complication of N2O rapidly moving from blood to alveoli of lungs, and displaces other gases, including O2 General anesthesia - Patient is not aroused, even during painful stimulation. Required airway intervention & cardiovascular function is impaired Deep sedation/analgesia - Can't be easily aroused, purposeful response to pain, and requires airway assistance Moderate sedation (conscious sedation) - Response to verbal or light tactile touch with no compromise of airway Minimal sedation (anxiolysis) - Normal response to verbal stimulation with airway reflexes, ventiliation & cardiovascular functions are unaffected Valium or Versed - What drugs are given for minimal sedation (anxiolysis) Balanced anesthesia - Anesthesia that relies on the use of several agents together to benefit from each other. Using each drug at a smaller dose than required if it were being used alone 0.2 mg - Maximum does of Epi for a healthy patient? 100% O2, Dantrolene (2.5 mg/kg) and IV cold saline (NOT Ringer's) - What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia? Hypertension - What emergency would a beta blocker be given? 0.04 mg - What is the maximum dose of Epi for a patient with cardiovascular disease? Asystole - Cardiac arrest- has no rhythm or contraction of EKG Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) - No discernable P, QRS or T waves noted. No pumping of blood at all and no depolarization of the ventricles V-Fib or Asytole - What are 2 emergencies would Epi be given in? Lidocaine - What are PVCs treated with? Versed, valium or propofol - What medications can be given for a severe case of hyperventilation? Ventricular tachycardia (V-tach) - Dysrhythmia with a rapid firing of an ectopic focus with a rate of 140-200 BPM but no P wave Amiodarone - What medication would be given for V-tach? Adenosine, Inderal or Esmolol - What are 3 different medications that could be given for SVT? Atropine - What medication would be given for symptomatic bradycardia? Airway obstruction - What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performed? ETT, LMA or ETA (endotracheal tube, laryngeal mask airway, esophageal tracheal airway) - What type of intubation is preferred with emesis and aspiration? Medical information that helps oral surgeons identify poor-risk patients, guide treatment, and written evidence the patient was given to evaluate the treatment plan - What are the 3 basic requirements to follow when gathering medical information? Hematuria - What is the term for blood in the urine? Pulmonary artery - What is the artery that carries oxygen-poor (venous) blood from the heart to the lungs? Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta - What is the blood flow through the heart? 100% O2, turn patient to their right side with head down, tonsil suction, intubate - What is the treatment for emesis with aspiration? Laryngospasm - Crowing sounds, labored breathing, suprasternal retraction & rocking of the chest and abdomen (paradoxical) are signs of what? 100% O2, head tilt chin position, tonsil suction, bag/mask, succinylcholine - Treatment of a laryngospasm Tracheostomy - Surgical airway below level of larynx into the trachea is called what? Capnograph/capnometer - Device that monitors ventilation in real time by measuring the level of O2 the patient exhales Pulse oximeter - Device that monitors ventilation and circulation Bronchspasm - Difficulty with expiration not inspiration, wheezing and labored breathing are signs of what medical emergency? 100% O2, Albuterol inhaler, epi, ETT/LMA or Igel, and a steroid - Treatment of bronchospasm MP 1 - What MP classification is visualization of soft palate, fauces, uvula, anterior and posterior pillars? MP 2 - What MP classification is visualization of soft palate, fauces & uvula? MP 3 - What MP classification is visualization of soft palate and base of tongue? MP 4 - What MP classification would the soft palate not be visible at all? Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin - What does MONA stand for? Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine (ONAM) - What is the actual order of MONA? Systolic blood pressure - Ventricular contraction is which phase of BP? Dystolic blood pressure - Ventricular relaxation is what phase of BP? Repolarization of the ventricles - The T wave on a cardiac monitor tracing is evidence of what change in polarization? Epiglottis - What anatomical structure located at the top of the larynx closes the airway and prevents foreign bodies from entering the trachea? Tongue - What is most likely to cause obstruction of the airway when an anesthetized patient is lying in a supine position? Pulmonary artery - Blood is pumped to the lungs from the heart through what vessel? Alveoli - Small, sac-like structures located at the end of the respiratory tract in which O2 and CO2 are exchanged. Epiglottis - Soft tissue valve that covers the larynx and allows food to enter the esophagus is called the? Common carotid - Artery located in the neck that is readily palpated when looking for a patient's pulse. Brain and spinal cord - CNS consists of: Blood supply to the brain - Patient with a history of TIA has had a temporary lessening of? Ischemic heart disease - Decreased blood flow in the coronary arteries is caused by? Medical history - Main purpose of the review of systems is to obtain a careful evaluation of the patient's ______________? Drug excretion - Patient who has renal disease would be expected to have difficulty with what? Basic medical information, process of evaluating the patient & the patient's psychological status - Medical history is used to document? SOB, edema, ascites - CHF can result in all of the following: 95-100% - Normal blood O2 saturation in an ASA (class) I patient ranges from: Subject to postoperative infections - Diabetic patients are at risk for oral surgery because they are: 6 months - Patient who has had a MI should wait how long before having elective surgery? Grave's disease - Hyperthyroidism is also considered? Hepatitis A - Hepatitis caused by contaminated food or water Hepatitis B - Hepatitis most frequently in patients who have been incarcerated or who have been treated for STDs Hepatitis C - Hepatitis caused by contaminated needles (IV drug use) Ascites - What is the term for large fluid filled abdomen? Hepatic coma - Prolonged CNS depression in a patient with liver disease can result in a condition called? Liver disease - Patients who have ______ disease don't have the ability to produce clotting factors INR (international normalized ratio) - Ratio of how long it takes a patient's blood to clot Cirrhosis - Liver disease with the formation of fibrous tissue and is most commonly caused by alcoholism is called what? Acute renal failure - Sudden onset, can't have NSAIDS, caused by heavy blood loss, dehydration, injury Chronic renal failure - the progressive loss of renal function over a period of months or years, usually on dialysis Hemodialysis - Patients go to a dialysis center several hours a day, usually 3 days/week. Are given Heparin during dialysis, and have a shunt or AV fistula Periotoneal dialysis - Natural membrane in patients abdomen is used for dialysis, less efficient and carried out for a longer period of time Anemic - Renal failure patients tend to become _____ because they can't produce adequate blood cells Seizures - Transient disturbance of cerebral functions Tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure - Most common type of seizure Prodromal phase, ictal tonic clonic phase, post ictal phase - 3 phases of grand mal seizures Grand mal status (status epilepticus) - Seizure lasting 5 minutes or longer Petit mal seizure - 2nd type of seizure Dilantin hyperplasia - Drug given to seizure patients that cause swelling/inflammation of gingival tissues TIA stroke (transient ischemic attack) - Mini stroke- recovery within 24 hours Aspiration and respiratory obstruction - Patients who have had strokes in the past are more prone to _______ and ______ during anesthesia 2nd trimester - Best trimester to perform oral surgery in 1st trimester - What trimester has the greatest risk for oral surgery? Obesity - 20% above ideal body weight Overwight - BMI 25-29 is considered Obese - BMI over 30 is considered Morbidly obese - BMI over 40 is considered Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) - Cessation of air flow for more than 10 seconds 2-3 - Patients INR is often _____ when on Coumadin 3-4 days - How long should a patient hold their Coumadin prior to surgery? Heparin - Given IV only, immediate effect and wears off rapidly. Given to patients on Coudmadin Plavix, Aspirin, Ticlid - Medications that interfere with platelets developing "sticky" characteristics. Life cycle of these drugs are 7-10 days Propofol, ketamine, versed, fentanyl - 4 most common drugs used together for balanced anesthesia Analgesia - Inability to feel pain - Fentanyl, ketamine & local Amnesia - Loss of memory - Versed & valium Versed, propofol, brevital & ketamine - 4 drugs that can be essential for a patient to be relaxed and immobile during procedure. Hypnosis - Loss of consciousness "put to sleep"- Propofol & brevital Anxiolytics - Centers for emotion- Valium & versed Dissociative anesthesia - Isolated from the environment "relay center"- Ketamine Opioi