PTCB EXAM TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST

PTCB EXAM TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST . Which organ can be affected by a condition of flutter? A. Esophagus B. Heart C. Intestine PTCB EXAM TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST WITH RATIONALE D. Kidneys {{Correct Ans- B. Heart Rationale: A flutter is a type of arrhythmia in which the patient's heart is beating at 200 to 350 beats/min. Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"? A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature B. Dispensing date, signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product company with lot number C. Dispensing date, signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the product sold, and lot number of the product sold D. Dispensing date, buyer signature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and expiration date of the product {{Correct Ans- A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature Rationale: The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requires that an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of the community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48 hours. The patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the purchase and the patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity of the product, and selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist must sign his or her name in the book as the seller of the "exempt narcotic." What does "K" represent on a patient's medical chart? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Phosphate D. Sodium {{Correct Ans- B. Potassium Rationale: K is potassium. Ca is calcium, Na is sodium, and PO4 is phosphate. How many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of Accutane (isotretinoin)? A. 1 day B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 180 days {{Correct Ans- B. 7 days Rationale: All Accutane (isotretinoin) prescriptions must be handwritten by the prescriber and filled within 7 days of being written with the approved yellow seal attached and having no refills authorized. A pharmacy contracts to buy the majority of its formulary from a particular wholesaler. What type of agreement is this? A. Preferred agreement B. Preferred vendor contract C. Preferential agreement D. Prime vendor agreement {{Correct Ans- D. Prime vendor agreement Rationale: A prime vendor agreement is one in which a pharmacy agrees to purchase almost exclusively from a specific vendor. The vendor in turn provides the pharmacy with discounted pricing. What is the gross profit for 30 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg with an acquisition cost of $7.85/100 tablets, AWP = $9.93/100 tablets, and a retail price of $15.99/30 tablets? A. $6.06 B. $8.14 C. $13.01 D. $13.63 {{Correct Ans- D. $13.63 Rationale: Gross profit is equal to the selling price minus the price paid for the product. The acquisition price is the price paid for the product. The acquisition cost is based on 100 tablets and must be prorated for 30 tablets ($7.85 × 30/100 = $2.36). SP ($15.99) - AC ($2.36) = $13.63. Which of the following pieces of legislation is known as the "prescription drug amendment"? A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment B. Hatch-Waxman Amendment C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment D. Mail Order Pharmacy Amendment {{Correct Ans- A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment Rationale: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment clearly defined prescriptions and over-the counter medications. A prescription medication is required to bear the federal legend on the container. Over-the-counter medications are considered safe to use without a physician's supervision. Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part B C. Medicare Part C D. Medicare Part D {{Correct Ans- D. Medicare Part D Rationale: Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpati ent hospital care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for physician services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage (Part C) allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that provides additional services at a higher cost. For which of the following drugs is it mandatory that a customer receive a PPI? A. Amoxicillin B. Lithonate C. Premarin D. Synthroid {{Correct Ans- C. Premarin Rationale: All prescriptions containing estrogens require the pharmacy to provide the patient with a patient product insert (PPI). What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding? A. DEA B. FDA C. GMP D. OBRA '90 {{Correct Ans- C. GMP Rationale: GMP stands for good manufacturing practices and is adhered to for compounding prescriptions. The DEA is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. The FDA ensures food and medications are pure, safe, and effective. OBRA '90 discusses drug utilization review and counseling patients. What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)? A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies {{Correct Ans- A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies Rationale: Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual purchase of medications for hospitals. Which of the following has been identified by MEDMARX as the leading cause of medication errors? A. Illegible handwriting B. Knowledge deficit C. Performance deficit D. Transcription inaccuracy {{Correct Ans- C. Performance deficit Rationale: MEDMARX has identified performance deficit as the largest cause of errors. What do the three sets of numbers in an NDC number reflect? A. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and the year an NDA was filed B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size C. Drug manufacturer, drug name, and drug strength D. None of the above {{Correct Ans- B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package size Rationale: The Drug Listing Act of 1972 provided a unique numbering system for each product. This 11-digit number identifies the drug manufacturer, the drug product, and the package size. Which of the following can a pharmacy technician do to reduce medication errors? A. Document all clarification on prescription orders. B. Initial all prescriptions. C. Keep work area clutter free. D. Visually check the medication in the bottle. {{Correct Ans- C. Keep work area clutter free. Rationale: A clutter-free work area reduces the possibility of a medication being placed in the wrong bottle or the wrong label being applied to the prescription bottle. It is the responsibility of pharmacists to document issues raised during the prescription filling process, to initial all filled prescriptions for which they were responsible, and to check the final product. How often should a patient change his or her Duragesic patch? A. Every 24 hours B. Every 48 hours C. Every 72 hours D. Once a week {{Correct Ans- C. Every 72 hours Rationale: Duragesic patches should be changed every 72 hours (3 days). Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. Expiration date of prescription B. Patient's name C. Physician's DEA number D. Physician's name {{Correct Ans- C. Physician's DEA number Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required only on the hard copy of a prescription or controlled substance; the DEA number is not required on the prescription label of control substances. Which of the following automated systems is commonly used to manage controlled substances? A. Baker cells B. Bar coding C. Pyxis machine D. Both b and c {{Correct Ans- D. Both b and c Rationale: Bar coding is used to identify the name, strength, dosage form, lot number, and expiration date of a medication and is one of the more common methods to manage controlled substance levels. Pyxis systems are used in decentralized systems to solve medication management issues that include narcotic diversion and poor record keeping. Which DAW code should be used if a physician authorizes the use of a generic drug but the patient requests a brand name drug? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 {{Correct Ans- C. 2 What is the generic name for Prevacid? A. Esomeprazole B. Lansoprazole C. Omeprazole D. Pantoprazole {{Correct Ans- B. Lansoprazole Rationale: Brand names and their generics are as follows: Prevacid—lansoprazole, Nexium—esomeprazole, Prilosec—omeprazole, and Protonix—pantoprazole. What is the meaning of HSA? A. Health Safety Administration B. Health savings account C. Health Savings Administration D. Health spending account {{Correct Ans- B. Health savings account Rationale: A health savings account (HSA) combines the benefits of both traditional and Roth 401(k)s and IRAs for medical expenses. Taxpayers receive a 100% income tax deduction on annual contributions. They may withdraw HSA funds tax free to reimburse themselves for qualified medical expenses, and they may defer taking such reimbursements indefinitely without penalties. Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. The name and address of the pharmacy B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances C. The patient's name D. The expiration date of the medication {{Correct Ans- B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances Rationale: A physician's DEA number is required on all prescriptions for a controlled substance, not all prescriptions. How often must an inventory of control substances be taken? A. Weekly B. Monthly C. Yearly D. Every 2 years {{Correct Ans- D. Every 2 years Rationale: The Controlled Substances Act requires that a pharmacy perform a biennial inventory of all controlled substances stocked in a pharmacy. An exact count must be performed on Schedule II medications, and an estimated count must be done on Schedules III to V. An institution may perform an inventory more frequently if required by either state law or organizational policy. Which of the following would be a correct DEA number for Dr. A. Shedlock? A. AB135426 B. BS2456879 C. FS1578926 D. MS2254235 {{Correct Ans- B. BS2456879 Rationale: The first letter may be either an A or B. The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber's last name. Next, add the numbers in the first, third, and fifth position. Then add the numbers in the second, fourth, and sixth positions; multiply this sum by two. Add both sums together, and the correct number should be the last number. What is the concentration of ½ NS? A. 0.45% B. 0.5% C. 0.9% D. 1% {{Correct Ans- A. 0.45% Rationale: 1/2 normal saline (NS) has a concentration of 0.45%, and NS has a concentration of 0.9%. Which of the following interpretations of the signa "ii gtt bid os" is correct? A. Instill 2 drops in right ear twice per day. B. Instill 2 drops in left ear twice per day. C. Instill 2 drops in right eye twice per day. D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice per day. {{Correct Ans- D. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice per day. Rationale: "os" means left eye, which is the only difference among all of the interpretations. Which of the following must appear on a unit-dose product label? A. Dose strength of the medication B. Expiration date of the medication C. Medication name D. All of the above {{Correct Ans- D. All of the above Rationale: Unit-dose labels require the name and strength of the medication, expiration date of the medication, manufacturer's name, and lot number. Which of the following medications is not an angiotensin II antagonist? A. Avapro B. Capoten C. Cozaar D. Diovan {{Correct Ans- B. Capoten Rationale: Capoten is a beta-blocker; Avapro, Cozaar, and Diovan are angiotensin II antagonists. A pharmacist asks you to prepare 250 mL of a 25% acetic acid solution. How much acetic acid would you need to make this preparation? A. 62.5 mg B. 6250 mg C. 62.5 g D. 6250 g {{Correct Ans- C. 62.5 g Rationale: Solve using the following formula: Final volume × % Strength (expressed as a decimal) will yield the amount of active ingredient in grams: 250 mL × 0.25 = 62.5 g. How long is a DEA Form 222 valid after it has been written? A. 72 hours B. 30 days C. 60 days D. 180 days {{Correct Ans- C. 60 days