Test Bank Hematology in Practice 3rd Edition Ciesla

Test Bank Hematology in Practice 3rd Edition Ciesla PREFACE TEST BANK with Complete Questions and Solutions. To clarify, this is the TEST BANK, not the textbook. You get immediate access to download your test bank. You will receive a complete test bank; in other words, all chapters shown in the table of contents in this preview will be there. Test banks come in PDF format; therefore, you do not need specialized software to open them. Chapter 1. Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice Multiple Choice 1. Tube length when referring to the microscope is the: A. Resolution power of the objective B. Distance from the eyepiece to the objective C. Numerical aperture D. Magnitude of the image on the stage ANS: B OBJ: 1.3 2. What is the most useful corrective action for the microscope when fine details cannot be visualized in immature cells? A. Open up the diaphragm for maximum light. B. Wipe off lenses with lens cleaner. C. Get a new slide. D. Move to a lower power. ANS: A 1OBJ: 1.4 3. Which of the following behaviors is a violation of standard precautions? A. Hand washing after glove removal B. Use of impermeable laboratory gowns C. Use of goggles and face shields D. Placing laboratory notebooks on laboratory work area ANS: D OBJ: 1.5 4. Standards and calibrators differ from control materials because: A. An exact amount of analyte is present in a standard or calibrator B. A variable amount of analyte is present depending on patient samples C. Standards only need to be within a target range D. Standards are run to the best estimate of the known value ANS: A OBJ: 1.7 5. Which of the following is involved in the study of hematology and used to determine sickness and health? A. Quantity of cells B. Cellular structure C. Cellular function D. All of the above 2ANS: D OBJ: 1.1 6. Proper mixing of samples and timely delivery of samples to the laboratory are both examples of: A. Delta checks B. Postanalytic variables C. Preanalytic variables D. Reflex testing ANS: C OBJ: 1.8 7. A delta check is a historical reference on samples run in the laboratories. Once a sample fails a delta check, the most obvious corrective action is to: A. Verify the identification of the patient sample B. Reestablish the parameters of the delta check C. Perform reflex testing D. Perform a manual method ANS: A 8. Which of the following is the definition of a reference interval? A. A solution of a known amount of analyte B. Materials analyzed concurrently with unknown samples C. Values established for a particular analyte, given a method, instrument, or patient population 3D. Validation techniques on flagged samples ANS: C OBJ: 1.8 9. Which of the following is not considered a postanalytic variable? A. Delta checks B. Proper anticoagulant used C. Specimen checked for clots D. Calling critical results ANS: B OBJ: 1.8 10. Error analysis, standard protocols, and turnaround time are all part of the: A. Quality assurance system B. Quality control program C. Reference standards D. Delta check protocol ANS: A OBJ: 1.7 11. The average of a group of data points is defined as the: A. Mean 4B. Mode C. Median D. Modicum ANS: A OBJ: 1.7 12. Safety training is part of new employee training in health care and includes: A. Biological hazards B. Chemical hazards C. Environmental hazards D. All of the above ANS: D OBJ: 1.6 13. When viewing a slide with the 50 objective lens, the total magnification being used is: A. 50 B. 100 C. 500 D. 5000 ANS: C OBJ: 1.3 14. Delta checks are used in the hematology laboratory to: A. Compare past patient results with the current result B. Verify control accuracy C. Establish a target range 5D. Establish reference ranges for a particular analyte ANS: A OBJ: 1.8 15. When hand washing after a patient contact, the soap application process should last at least: A. 5 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 30 seconds ANS: B OBJ: 1.6 16. Which of the following represents an example of a safety violation in the laboratory? A. Application of cosmetics B. Mouth pipetting C. Consuming bottled water D. All the above ANS: D OBJ: 1.6 6True/False 17. Standard deviation is a measurement of precision. ANS: True OBJ: 1.7 18. Accuracy is a measurement of the true value of an analyte. ANS: True OBJ: 1.8 19. A normal distribution curve will have 99.7% of the measured values fall within 2 SDs. ANS: False OBJ: 1.7 Completion (Ordered Response) NARRBEGIN: 7NARREND 20. Label the parts of the microscope. 81 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ANS: NAR: Figure 1-1 OBJ: 1.2 Chapter 2. From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count Multiple Choice 1. What is the average M:E ratio for normal adult bone marrow? A. 1:3 B. 4:1 C. 1:4 D. 6:1 ANS: B OBJ: 2.6 2. The key organs involved in extramedullary hematopoiesis include the: A. Kidney and thymus B. Lymph nodes and heart C. Liver and spleen D. Kidney and liver ANS: C OBJ: 2.5 3. Which of these assays is the best test to assess the bone marrow’s response to anemic stress? A. Hemoglobin value B. MCV value C. Reticulocyte count D. Hematocrit ANS: C OBJ: 2.12 94. All of the following splenic functions are related to hematopoiesis, except: A. Production of opsonizing antibodies B. Production of WBCS, if necessary C. Filtering out of old or deformed cells D. Storage of platelets and granulocytes ANS: A OBJ: 2.4 5. Which of the following is a primary site for hematopoiesis in a fetus of 4 to 5 months’ gestation? A. Yolk sac B. Spleen C. Distal long bones D. Axial skeleton ANS: B OBJ: 2.2 6. A patient with the following values—RBC = 4.01 1012/L, Hgb = 12.5 g/dL, and Hct = 37.2%—will most likely have which of the following RBC indices? A. MCV = 92.8 fL, MCH = 31.2 pg, MCHC = 33.6% B. MCV = 92.8 fL, MCH = 33.6 pg, MCHC = 31.2% C. MCV = 107.8 fL, MCH = 32.1 pg, MCHC = 33.6% D. MCV = 132.2 fL, MCH = 32.1 pg, MCHC = 33.5% ANS: A OBJ: 2.9 7. The hormone responsible for red blood cell development in the bone marrow is: A. Thyroxin B. Insulin C. Leukopoietin D. Erythropoietin ANS: D OBJ: 2.1 8. Which of the following sites is the most preferable for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in adults? A. Sternum B. Iliac crest C. Fibula D. Vertebra ANS: B OBJ: 2.7 109. A patient’s hemoglobin is 12.3 g/dL. On the peripheral smear, the red cells appear normochromic and normocytic. The hematocrit value that correlates with these data is: A. 34% B. 37% C. 40% D. 43% ANS: B OBJ: 2.10 10. A Wright-stained smear of a patient’s bone marrow would effectively reveal all the following cells except: A. Iron-containing cells B. RBC precursor cells C. WBC precursor cells D. Mature WBCs ANS: A OBJ: 2.7 11. Erythropoietin is produced by the: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Spleen D. Thymus gland ANS: A OBJ: 2.1 12. Bone marrow aspiration is usually required in conditions of: A. Anemia B. Hypoxia C. Leukemia D. Hepatosplenomegaly ANS: C OBJ: 2.7 13. Opsonizing antibodies produced by the spleen serve to: A. Strip the capsule from bacterial pathogens B. Recycle erythrocyte byproducts C. Aid in extramedullary hematopoiesis D. Fight viral infection 11ANS: A OBJ: 2.4 14. The spleen harbors A. one-quarter B. one-third C. one-half D. three-quarters ANS: B OBJ: 2.4 15. Mature red blood cells leave the bone marrow and enter the circulation via the: A. Reticuloendothelial system B. Osteoclasts C. Spleen D. Bone marrow sinuses ANS: D OBJ: 2.1 16. Which of the following is a site of extramedullary hematopoiesis in an adult? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Iliac crest D. Both A and B ANS: D OBJ: 2.5 17. The A. MCV B. Hct C. MCHC D. MCH ANS: A OBJ: 2.10 18. The CBC parameter that gives insight into the amount of anisocytosis present in a specimen is: A. RDW B. MCHC C. MCV D. Hgb ANS: A OBJ: 2.8 12 is one of the most stable parameters in a CBC. of the circulatory platelet mass.True/False 19. The CFU-GEMM is a multipotential stem cell, capable of differentiating into a lymphoid or nonlymphoid precursor committed cell. ANS: False OBJ: 2.3 20. Patients with moderate anemias (7 to 10 g/dL) may be asymptomatic. ANS: True OBJ: 2.10 Chapter 3. Blood Cell Production and FUNCTION and Relevant Red Cell Morphology Multiple Choice 1. Hemoglobin begins to appear in which of the following erythrocyte stages? (listed using College of American Pathologists terminology) A. Basophilic normoblast B. Polychromatophilic normoblast C. Orthochromic normoblast D. Pronormoblast ANS: B OBJ: 3.1, 3.2, 3.4 2. As a red blood cell matures, what is one key morphological feature of the stages containing a nucleus? A. Basophilic cytoplasm through every stage of maturation B. Granules in the cytoplasm C. A round nucleus D. An increase in size as the cell matures ANS: C OBJ: 3.1 & 3.2 3. What is the red cell protein that is responsible for deformability and flexibility of the red cell? A. Spectrin 13