Test Bank For Pathophysiology 5th Edition | Complete ()

Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis? a. Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints. b. Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints. c. It progresses bilaterally through the small joints. d. There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints. ANS: B REF: 173-174 17. What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis? a. Decreases over time b. Quite severe in the early stages c. Aggravated by general muscle aching d. Increased with weight-bearing and activity ANS: D REF: 174 18. What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis? a. The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface b. The wider joint space c. Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity d. Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments ANS: A REF: 174 19. Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by: a. causing enzymes to be released that travel to other joints. b. bacteria traveling from the affected join to a healthy one through the bloodstream. c. inflammation and edema affecting the entire limb. d. the affected individual’s exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one. ANS: D REF: 174 20. What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis? a. Random single joints, progressing to involve other joints b. Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints c. Abused or damaged joints first, then joints damaged by compensatory movement d. Progressive degeneration in selected joints ANS: B REF: 177 21. What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Degenerative disorder involving the small joints b. Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints c. Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction d. Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs ANS: C REF: 175-177 22. How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis? a. Enzymatic destruction by the pannus b. Inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage c. Fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones d. Blood supply to the cartilage is lost ANS: A REF: 175 23. How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Relatively normal b. Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement c. Deformed, pale, and nodular d. Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch ANS: D REF: 177 24. Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because: a. skeletal muscle hypertrophies. b. fibrosis occurs in the joint. c. replacement cartilage changes alignment. d. ligaments and tendons shorten. ANS: A REF: 176 25. Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as: a. nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia. b. headache, leukopenia, and high fever. c. swelling and dysfunction in many organs. d. progressive damage to a joint. ANS: A REF: 176 26. What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis? a. Leukocytosis b. Osteoporosis c. Severe anemia d. Orthostatic hypotension ANS: B REF: 177 27. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differs from the adult form in that: a. only small joints are affected. b. rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe. c. onset is more insidious in JRA. d. deformity and loss of function occur in most children with JRA. ANS: B REF: 177 28. Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis? a. Multiple joints that are swollen, red, and painful at one time b. Presence of mild fever, fatigue, and leukocytosis c. Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint d. Presence of many antibodies in the blood ANS: C REF: 178 29. Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout? a. A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels b. Severe hypercalcemia c. Mild trauma to the toes d. Development of a tophus ANS: A REF: 178 30. Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis? a. Costovertebral joints with progression down the spine b. Cervical and thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis c. Sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine d. Peripheral joints and then proceeds to the vertebrae ANS: C REF: 178 31. What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis? ANS: D REF: 178-179 32. Which statement applies to menisci? a. They are found in the hip joints. b. They are secretory membranes in joints. c. They prevent excessive movement of joints. d. They are found in the shoulder joint. ANS: C REF: 163 33. Which factors delay healing of bone fractures? a. Damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function b. Frequent fractures of long bones c. Impaired heart function d. Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis 1. Lack of movement of the bone 2. Prolonged inflammation and ischemia 3. Presence of osteomyelitis 4. Close approximation of bone ends a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 3 d. 3, 4 ANS: C REF: 166-167 34. What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur? a. Additional ischemia in the broken bone b. Nonunion or malunion of the fracture c. Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction d. Abscess and infection at a distant site ANS: C REF: 167 35. A sprain is a tear in a: a. ligament. b. tendon. c. skeletal muscle. d. meniscus. ANS: A REF: 168 36. Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include: a. non–weight-bearing exercises. b. dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D. c. transplants of osteoblasts. d. avoidance of all hormones. ANS: B REF: 170 37. What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome? a. Joint pain and stiffness throughout the body b. Degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs c. Localized areas of constant pain d. Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness ANS: D REF: 173 38. Ewing’s sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the: a. brain. b. liver. c. lungs. d. other bones. ANS: C REF: 171 39. Immovable joints are called: a. amphiarthroses. b. synarthroses. c. diarthroses. d. synovial joints. ANS: B REF: 163 40. Rickets results from: a. excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts. b. a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates. c. replacement of bone by fibrous tissue. d. hyperparathyroidism. ANS: B REF: 170 41. Paget’s disease often leads to which of the following? a. A reduction in bone fractures b. Decreased intracranial pressure c. Cardiovascular disease d. Disintegration of joint cartilage ANS: C REF: 170 42. Bones classified as “irregular” would include: a. skull bones. b. the mandible. c. wrist bones. d. the femur. ANS: B REF: 159 43. A dislocation is: a. the tearing of a tendon in the joint. b. the separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact. c. the twisting of a joint, causing excessive inflammation of the surrounding tissue. d. the overstressing of ligaments, causing loss of elasticity. ANS: B REF: 167 44. A diagnostic test that measures the electrical charge of muscle contraction and can help differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disease is a/an: a. electromyogram. b. arthroscopy. c. radiograph. d. electroencephalograph. ANS: A REF: 164 45. The type of compound fracture in which there are multiple fracture lines and bone fragments is referred to as a/an: ANS: D REF: 164 46. Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called: ANS: B REF: 179 Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders Test Bank a. compression fracture. b. greenstick fracture. c. simple fracture. d. comminuted fracture. a. articular capsules. b. bursae. c. synovial sacs. d. hyaline chambers. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following would result from a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood? a. Increased hemoglobin in the blood b. Decreased hematocrit c. Increased risk of hemostasis d. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood ANS: B REF: 185 2. What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells? a. Leucopenia b. Neutropenia c. Pancytopenia d. Erythrocytosis ANS: C REF: 205 3. Capillary walls consist of: a. multiple endothelial layers. b. a thick layer of smooth muscle. c. two or three epithelial layers. d. a single endothelial layer.