My mcqs network 1 questions & answers 2023 update

My mcqs network 1 questions & answers 2023 update EASY QUESTIONS 1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN? a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network b) wireless devices itself c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned 2. In wireless ad-hoc network a) access point is not required b) access point is a must c) nodes are not required d) none of the mentioned 3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN? a) CDMA b) CSMA/CA c) ALOHA d) none of the mentioned 4. In wireless distribution system a) multiple access point is inter-connected with each other b) there is no access point c) only one access point exists d) none of the mentioned 5. A wireless network interface controller can work in a) Infrastructure mode b) ad-hoc mode c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned 6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of a) connected basic service sets b) all stations c) all access points d) none of the mentioned 7. Mostly is used in wireless LAN. a) time division multiplexing b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing c) space division multiplexing d) none of the mentioned 8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN. a) collision detection b) Acknowledgement of data frames c) multi-mode data transmission d) none of the mentioned 9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)? a) Security algorithm for Ethernet b) security algorithm for wireless networks c) security algorithm for USB communication d) none of the mentioned 10. What is WPA? a) Wi-Fi protected access b) wired protected access c) wired process access d) Wi-Fi process access 11. The advantages of FDMA over TDMA includes i. Division is simpler ii. Propagation delays are eliminated iii. Cheaper filters with less complicated logic functions iv. Linearity a. 1), 2) and 3) are correct b. 1) and 2) are correct c. 1) and 4) are correct d. All four are correct 12. TDMA is a multiple access technique that has a. Different users in different time slots b. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots c. Each user is assigned a unique code sequence d. Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique 13. In TDMA, the user occupies the whole bandwidth during transmission. a. True b. False 14 TDMA allows the user to have a. Use of same frequency channel for same time slot b. Use of same frequency channel for different time slot c. Use of same time slot for different frequency channel d. Use of different time slot for different frequency channels ANSWER: b. Use of same frequency channel for different time slot 15. GSM is an example of a. TDMA cellular systems b. FDMA cellular systems c. CDMA cellular systems d. SDMA cellular systems 16. TDMA is employed with a TDMA frame that has preamble. The preamble contains Address of base station and subscribers 1. Synchronization information 2. Frequency allotted 3. Coded sequence a. 1 and 2 are correct b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct c. 2 and 4 are correct d. All the four correct 17. Which standard is used by wireless products that utilize orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) technology? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11c d) 802.11d 18. When necessary, which type of MAC service data unit is given priority by the 802.11 MAC sublayer services? a) Broadcast b) Unicast c) Multicast d) Keep-alive 19. In the simplest wireless LAN configuration, all devices equipped with a client adapter can communicate directly with one another. Which term describes this configuration? a) Infrastructure b) Ad hoc c) Roaming d) Microcellular 20. An access point has a data rate of 2.0 Mbps and only yields 1000 kbps of throughput because of overhead. What is the efficiency of the access point? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 85% 21. What is WAP? a) A set of communication protocols that give mobile device users access to the same information from a pocket-sized device as they have from the desktop. b) A set of communication protocols that give mobile device users the ability to switch from wireless to wired network access. c) A suite of proprietary applications that provide Telnet and ping functionality to wireless pocket- sized mobile devices. d) A suite of standards used in the wireless environment to ensure interoperability between products. IEEE technique, that are used to describe high rate direct sequence spread spectrum method for signal generation is called A. IEEE 802.11 infrared B. IEEE 802.11b DSSS C. 802.11g OFDM D. IEEE 802.11 DSSS Answer B Cellular Telephony Quiz In cellular telephony, radius of a cell is typically A. 1 to 12 mi B. 2 to 14 mi C. 2 to 16 mi D. 2 to 20 mi Answer A Network where there is no resource reservation is called A. Circuit-Switched Networks B. message-switched networks C. Packet-switched networks D. satellite network Answer C Two techniques to spread bandwidth are A. FHSS and TDM B. DSSS and FHSS C. FDM and FHSS D. none Answer B Fast Ethernet address contains A. 46 bits B. 48 bits C. 54 bits D. 64 bits Answer B Field retry means retransmitted frame when its value is set to A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. infinity Answer B IEEE 802.11 have three types of A. frames B. fields C. signals D. sequences Answer A DCF stands for A. Direct Control Function B. Distributed Control Function C. Direct Coordination Function D. Distributed Coordination Function Answer D Current version in frame control field is A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 Answer A If value of sub field type is 1100 in control frames, then it contains information of A. Request to send B. Clear to send C. Acknowledgement D. Sender Answer B Control frame that is sent by destination station is called A. clear to send B. Request to sent C. Distributed Inter-Frame Space D. Short Inter-Frame Space Answer A In field control frames, there are four address in which address 1 is always address of A. Next device B. Previous device C. Final destination D. Original source Answer A In IEEE 802.11 frames, To DS and from DS define value of two flags in the A. Sequence field B. Data field C. Frame control field D. Duration field Answer C In IEEE 802.11 frames, when values of “To DS and from DS” are 00, its means frame is not going to a A. Adhoc System B. Infrastructure system C. Distribution System D. cellular System Answer C In IEEE 802.11 frames, when values of “To DS and from DS” are 11, its means distribution system is A. Local Area Network B. Wireless Area Network C. Metropolitan Network D. None of given Answer B INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11a standard? A. 2.4Gbps B. 5Gbps C. 2.4GHz D. 5GHz Answer: Option D Explanation: The IEEE 802.11a standard runs in the 5GHz RF range. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 2. What is the maximum distance running the lowest data rate for 802.11b? A. About 100 feet B. About 175 feet C. About 300 feet D. About 350 feet Answer: Option D Explanation: The IEEE 802.11b standard provides the lowest data rate at 1Mbps, but it also has the longest distance, which is about 350 feet. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 3. What is the maximum distance with maximum data rate for 802.11a? A. About 65-75 feet B. About 90-100 feet C. About 150 feet D. Over 200 feet Answer: Option A Explanation: The IEEE 802.11a standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 54Mbps, but you need to be close to the access point, somewhere around 65 to 75 feet. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 4. What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard? A. 2.4Gbps B. 5Gbps C. 2.4GHz D. 5GHz Answer: Option C You have a Cisco mesh network. What protocol allows multiple APs to connect with many redundant connections between nodes? A. LWAPP B. AWPP C. STP D. IEEE Answer: Option B What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11g standard? A. 6Mbps B. 11Mbps C. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps Answer: Option D What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard? A. 6Mbps B. 11Mbps C. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps Answer: Option D How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11b? A. 3 B. 12 C. 23 D. 40 Answer: Option A How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11a? A. 3 B. 12 C. 23 D. 40 Answer: Option B In Cisco's Unified Wireless Solution, what is the split-MAC architecture? A. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses to create a forward/filter table and break up collision domains. B. The split-MAC architecture allows the splitting of 802.11 protocol packets between the AP and the controller to allow processing by both devices. C. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses on the wireless network and IP addresses on the wired network. D. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC addresses to create a forward/filter table and break up broadcast domains. Answer: Option B What is the maximum distance with maximum data rate for 802.11b? A. About 65-75 feet B. About 90-100 feet C. About 150 feet D. Over 200 feet Answer: Option C What is the maximum distance with maximum data rate for 802.11g? A. About 65-75 feet B. About 90-100 feet C. About 150 feet D. Over 200 feet Answer: Option B What is the maximum distance running the lowest data rate for 802.11a? A. About 100 feet B. About 175 feet C. About 300 feet D. About 350 feet Answer: Option B How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11h? A. 3 B. 12 C. 23 D. 40 Answer: Option C What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11b standard? A. 6Mbps B. 11Mbps C. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps Answer: Option B You are connecting your access point and it is set to root. What does Extended Service Set ID mean? A. That you have more than one access point and they are in the same SSID connected by a distribution system. B. That you have more than one access point and they are in separate SSIDs connected by a distribution system. C. That you have multiple access points, but they are placed physically in different buildings. D. That you have multiple access points, but one is a repeater access point. Answer: Option A Cisco's Unified Wireless Solution provides a mesh solution. What devices do you absolutely need to purchase to run a Cisco solution? WCS Controller Access point Bridge A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 only D. 4 only Answer: Option B What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard? A. 2.4Gbps B. 5Gbps C. 2.4GHz D. 5GHz Answer: Option C How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11g? A. 3 B. 12 C. 23 D. 40 Answer: Option A What is the maximum distance running the lowest data rate for 802.11g? A. About 100 feet B. About 175 feet C. About 300 feet D. About 350 feet Answer: Option C This is the family of specifications for wireless local area networks (WLANs) developed by a working group of the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). a. 3G b. 802.11 c. 802.3 d. 802.5 2. Which of the following refers to a standard or group of standards that are still being developed as a part of overall IEEE 802.11 WLAN support? a. 802.11x b. 802.11i c. Both A and B. d. Neither of the above. 3. Which of the following refers to a communications specification that was approved in early 2002 by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Standards Association (IEEE-SA) for wireless personal area networks (WPANs)? a. 802.11a b. 802.15 c. 802.11b d. None of the above. 4. Which of the following is a language that allows the text portions of Web pages to be presented on cellular telephones and personal digital assistants (PDAs) via wireless access? a. HDML b. Wireless Markup Language c. Both A and B. d. Neither of the above. 5. Developed by International Telecommunication Union (ITU), is a code-division multiple access (CDMA) version of the IMT-2000 standard. a. CDMA b. WCDMA c. CMYK d. CDMA2000 6. This is an industry specification that describes how mobile phones, computers, and PDAs can easily interconnect with each other using a short-range wireless connection. a. Bluetooth b. EMI c. D-AMPS d. IrDA 7. Which of the following is a faster version of GSM wireless service, designed to deliver data at rates up to 384 Kbps and enable the delivery of multimedia and other broadband applications to mobile phone and computer users? a. ESMR b. BREW c. EDGE d. ETRN 8. is a security protocol designed to provide a wireless LAN with a level of security and privacy comparable to what is usually expected of a wired LAN. a. WEP b. 802.11x c. RMON d. LDAP 9. This is a specification for a set of communication protocols to standardize the way that wireless devices can be used for Internet access. a. WAP b. WAX c. VSAT d. TETRA 10. This is the handling of voice, fax, and regular text messages as objects in a single mailbox that a user can access either with a regular e-mail client or by telephone. a. Short Message Service b. short messaging c. UMTS d. unified messaging OSI stands for a) open system interconnection b) operating system interface c) optical service implementation d) none of the mentioned Answer: a 2. The OSI model has layers. a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 Answer: d 3. TCP/IP model does not have layer but OSI model have this layer. a) session layer b) presentation layer c) application layer d) both (a) and (b) Answer: d 4. Which layer links the network support layers and user support layers a) session layer b) data link layer c) transport layer d) network layer Answer: c 5. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols? a) physical address and logical address b) port address c) specific address d) all of the mentioned Answer: d 6. TCP/IP model was developed the OSI model. a) prior to b) after c) simultaneous to d) none of the mentioned Answer: a 7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery? a) network layer b) transport layer c) session layer d) data link layer Answer: b 8. Which address identifies a process on a host? a) physical address b) logical address c) port address d) specific address Answer: c 9. Which layer provides the services to user? a) application layer b) session layer c) presentation layer d) none of the mentioned Answer: a 10. Transmission data rate is decided by a) network layer b) physical layer c) data link layer d) transport layer Answer: b CHALLENGING QUESTIONS Size and format of physical addresses vary depending on the A. Receiver B. Message C. Sender D. Network Answer D ICMP Stands for A. Internet Connect Message Protocol B. Internet Control Message Protocol C. International Connect Message Protocol D. International Control Message Protocol Answer B Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Networking Protocol have A. Four Layers B. Five Layers C. Six Layers D. Seven Layers Answer A Parameter that is normally achieved through a trailer added to end of frame is A. Access Control B. Flow Control C. Error Control D. Physical addressing. Answer C Packets of data that is transported by IP is called A. datagrams B. Frames C. Segments D. Encapsulate Answer A In Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA), if station senses medium before trying to use it then chance of collision can be A. Increased B. Reduced C. Highlighted D. Decreased Answer B Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) differs from Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) because there is no A. bandwidth B. link C. carrier D. timesharing Answer D In Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA), possibility of collision still exist because of A. Propagation delay B. Collision delay C. Sense delay D. Transmit delay Answer A Protocol that is used to transmit data without any schedule time is A. random access B. controlled access C. channelization D. none of above Answer A Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) is based on medium called A. Listen before talk B. Listen before sending C. Sense before transmit D. Sense before Collision Answer C Normally value of Kmax in pure ALOHA is A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 Answer C In Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD), sending station must Detect A. Collision B. Signal C. Sense D. Station Answer A Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) method was developed to increase the A. Collision B. Performance C. Transmission D. Station Answer B If maximum propagation time in Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is 25.6 A. 54 bytes B. 64 bytes C. 74 bytes D. 84 bytes Answer B A collision of frames could be result when a station sends a frame and at same time any other station tries to send a A. Information B. Frame C. Station D. Sense Answer B Processing that is carried out by using remote terminal processors is called A. teleprocessing B. digital processing C. logic processing D. remote processing Answer A When all bits are sent at same time for each character, this is called A. parallel transmission B. wide transmission C. local transmission D. serial transmission Answer A Speed of transmitted data is measured by A. baud B. band C. visual bands D. telex bands Answer A Process of data communication over relatively larger distances is called A. data communication B. communication C. data terminals D. telecommunications Answer D Output/input devices enabling users to communicate with computer system are called A. terminals B. telecommunication C. data communication D. communication Answer A In Remote Logging, a user logs into a local timesharing system, it is called A. local log-in B. local log-out C. local login Code D. local login Server Answer A MIME stands for A. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions B. Multipurpose Internet Mail Email C. Multipurpose Internet Mail End D. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extra Answer A In File Transfer Protocol (FTP), while control connection is open, data connection can be opened and closed A. One time B. Several Times C. Multiple Times D. None of given Answer C File Transfer Protocol (FTP), uses the same operation as uses by A. ICMP B. STMP C. TCP D. FSK Answer C File Transfer Protocol (FTP), uses well-known port 21 is used for control connection and well- known port 20 for the A. Data Rate B. Data Connection C. Data Protocol D. Data Congestion Answer B Application layer provides basis for A. Email services B. Directory services. C. File transfer, access, and management. D. Network virtual terminal. Answer A Trailer is added only at A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. transport Layer D. Network LAYER Answer B 0'th layer of OSI model is A. Physical layer B. Application layer C. Presentation layer D. Hardware Answer D Segmentation and reassembly is responsibility of A. 7th Layer B. 6th Layer C. 5th Layer D. 4th layer Answer D Flow control and Error control is done by A. Application layer B. Data link layer C. Session layer D. Presentation layer Answer B In encapsulation, data portion of a packet at level N - 1 carries whole packet from level A. N B. N+1 C. N+2 D. N+3 Answer A Physical layer is responsible for A. Node to node communication B. Peer to peer communication C. Hop to hop communication D. both a and c Answer B OSI model deals with physical, data link, network, transport, session and A. Presentation layer B. Application layer C. both a and b D. None of Above Answer C A 16-bit port address represents A. One single number B. four chunks of numbers C. two numbers D. both b and c Answer A Logical Addresses are A. 16bit long B. 32bit long C. 64bit long D. 128bit long Answer B Error Control and Flow Control are responsibilities of A. data link and network Layers B. data link and Physical Layer C. Application and Presentation Layer D. data link and Transport Layer Answer D Both TCP and SCTP protocols are A. Connection less B. connection oriented C. start but no ending D. None of Above Answer B Layer that is in between of session and application layer is A. Network B. Transport C. Presentation D. Data link Answer C Each segment as an independent packet and delivers it to transport layer at destination machine is called A. Connection Oriented B. connectionless C. Segmentation D. Reassembly Answer B Layer that are used to deal with mechanical and electrical specifications are A. Physical Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Network Layer D. Transport Layer Answer A At transport layer, TCP/IP defines A. Transmission Control Protocol B. User Datagram Protocol C. Stream Control Transmission Protocol D. All of above Answer D Network support layers are A. 1, 2, 3 B. 4,5 C. 5,6,7 D. 4 Answer A Term that are used to allow interoperability among unrelated software systems are called A. network support layers B. user support layers C. transport Layer D. Lower layers Answer B Session layer is responsible for A. Error Control and Flow Control B. Framing and Access Control C. dialog control and synchronization D. Segmentation and reassembly Answer C TCP/IP does not define any specific protocol at the A. Network Layer B. Physical and Data Link Layers C. Transport layer D. Internet layer Answer B Control frame that is sent by destination station is called A. clear to send B. Request to sent C. Distributed Interframe Space D. Short Interframe Space Answer A Field retry means retransmitted frame when its value is set to A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. infinity Answer B IEEE 802.11 have three types of A. frames B. fields C. signals D. sequences Answer A Access method of baseband layer is A. FDMA B. TDMA C. FSK D. CDMA Answer B A BSS without an AP is called an A. adhoc network B. infrastructure network C. connectionless network D. channelization network Answer A Bluetooth defines several protocols for the A. Upper Layer B. Lower Layer C. Higher Layer D. Sub Layer Answer A Small network, which is known as A. Wireless Network B. Bluetooth Network C. Adhoc Network D. Piconet Network Answer B Point Coordination Function- Interframe space (PIFS) is shorter than the A. RTS B. SIFS C. DIFS D. CTS Answer C Bluetooth allows station to define a quality of A. Time Level B. Service Level C. Data Level D. Frame Level Answer B ACL stands for A. Asynchronous Connectionless Link B. Asynchronous Connection Link C. Asynchronous Connected Link D. Asynchronous Communicated Link Answer A DCF stands for A. Direct Control Function B. Distributed Control Function C. Direct Coordination Function D. Distributed Coordination Function Answer D Distributed Coordination Function (DCF) is used mechanism of A. CSMA/CD B. CSMA/CA C. TDMA D. FDMA Answer B Current version in frame control field is A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 Answer A Management frames, control frames, and data frames are used by A. Wireless LANs B. Wireless MANs C. Wireless WANs D. None Answer A If value of sub field type is 1100 in control frames, then it contains information of A. Request to send B. Clear to send C. Acknowledgement D. Sender Answer B Each station can send data without need to since line is A. full duplex Ethernet B. half duplex Ethernet C. both D. None Answer A Addressing mechanism of Bluetooth can include up to A. 2 Addresses B. 4 Addresses C. 6 Addresses D. 8 Addresses Answer B In Bluetooth LAN, devices are called A. Nodes B. Gadgets C. Piconet D. Segment Answer B If piconet has only one secondary, TDMA operation is very A. Complicated B. Difficult C. Simple D. Different Answer C Exact range of Bluetooth devices are A. 10 m B. 20 m C. 30 m D. 40 m Answer A Primary and secondary devices communicate with each other using A. Time Slots B. Data C. Signals D. Frames Answer A Each channel in Bluetooth layer is of A. 1 MHz B. 2 MHz C. 3 MHz D. 4 MHz Answer A For a I-Mbps data rate, 16 Bit sequence in which only first bit is set to 1 and rest are A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. Infinity Answer A Point Coordination Function (PCF) is implemented in an A. infrastructure network B. adhoc network C. distributed network D. cellular network Answer A A Bluetooth LAN is an A. Adhoc Network B. Adhoc Signals C. Adhoc Interface D. Adhoc LAN Answer A BSS stands for A. Basic Signal Set B. Basic Service Set C. Beacon Service Set D. Basic Strong Set Answer B Frames that are used for initial communication between stations and access point are called A. Control frames B. Data frames C. Beacon Frame D. Management Frames Answer D A piconet network can have up to A. 9 Station B. 8 Station C. 7 Station D. 6 Station Answer B Maximum size of payload field in baseband layer is A. 2244 Bits B. 2664 Bits C. 2774 Bits D. 2884 Bits Answer C Multiple Piconet form a network called a A. small area B. scatter net C. network allocation vector D. gadgets Answer B A small net can have only one primary A. Frame B. Data C. Signal D. Station Answer D Bluetooth is a wireless A. WAN technology B. MAN technology C. LAN technology D. nothing Answer C Bluetooth technology was originally started as a project by the A. Apple Company B. Dell Company C. Ericsson Company D. Samsung Company Answer C 4- bit type subfield of baseband layer frame defines type of data coming from the A. Lower Layer B. upper layer C. data link layer D. Media Access Control layer Answer B Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) is similar to A. TDM B. FSD C. BPS D. FDM Answer D Range of Bluetooth devices are A. Large B. Extended C. Basic D. Short Answer D Logical Link Control and Adaptation Protocol (L2CAP) divides large packets into A. frames B. data C. segments D. signals Answer C Today, Bluetooth has standard of technology which is defined by A. IEEE 802.11 B. IEEE 802.12 C. IEEE 802.14 D. IEEE 802.15 Answer D A basic service set without an access point is a stand-alone network called A. Cellular Network B. Point to point network C. Adhoc network D. Infrastructure network Answer C Term that is used to show time in which Request to Send (RTS) and Clear to Send (CTS) control frames are in transition is called A. Hand shaking period B. Back-off time C. Frame exchange timeline D. timeline Answer A Modulation technique in IEEE 802.11 infrared is A. PPM B. PSK C. FSK D. QAM Answer A When station accesses system and send a Request to Send (RTS) frame then other stations start their . A. Point Coordination Function B. Network allocation vector C. Distributed Coordination function D. clear to send Answer B When Piconet network are combined, then it forms a A. Scatter net B. Small Net C. Large Net D. Narrow Net Answer A Distributed Coordination Function (DCF) is having lower priority over A. PCF B. RTS C. CTS D. PIFS Answer A IEEE technique, that are used to describe high rate direct sequence spread spectrum method for signal generation is called A. IEEE 802.11 infrared B. IEEE 802.11b DSSS C. 802.11g OFDM D. IEEE 802.11 DSSS Answer B A BSS without an AP is called an A. Adhoc network B. infrastructure network C. connectionless network D. channelization network Answer A Wireless LANs implement security measures in the A. System Layers B. Data Link Layers C. Sub Layers D. Multi Layers Answer B Specifications for a wireless LAN are called A. Standard 802.3z B. Standard 802.3u C. Project 802.3 D. IEEE 802.11 Answer D In wireless LAN, there are many hidden stations so we cannot detect the A. Frames B. Collision C. Signal D. Data Answer B Term that is used for stationary or mobile wireless station and also have optional central base station is called A. Point to point B. Multi point C. Network point D. Access point Answer D Wireless communication is started in A. 1869 B. 1895 C. 1879 D. 1885 Answer B TOPIC 2 EASY QUESTIONS Which of the following generates alerts sent to e-mail, mobile device, or Windows Messenger ? a) Windows Live Calendar b) Windows Live Alerts c) Windows Live Admin Centre d) None of the mentioned Answer:b Point out the wrong statement: a) Windows Live is a collection of cloud-based applications and services b) Windows Live Essentials applications are a collection of server-side applications c) Windows Live Essentials is available from the Start menu as a set of commands d) None of the mentioned Answer:b Which of the following is used for synchronization and remote access service for files stored on PCs and mobile devices ? a) Windows Live Family Safety b) Windows Live Devices c) Windows Live Essentials d) All of the answers Answer:b Which of the following has address book service with synchronization feature ? a) Windows Live Calendar b) Windows Live Alerts c) Windows Live Contacts d) None of the mentioned Answer:c Point out the correct statement: a) Windows Live Suite is the central access page or portal for the Windows Live suite b) Windows Live House is the central access page or portal for the Windows Live suite c) Microsoft has a number of Windows Live services that are specifically meant to be run on mobile devices d) All of the mentioned Answer:c Which of the following adds an RSS feed to digital photo frame devices ? a) Windows Live FrameIt b) Windows Live Gallery c) Windows Live Groups d) Windows Live Hotmail Answer:a is a personalization Web page and tool for Windows Live with status information and navigation features. a) Windows Live Home b) Windows Live Gallery c) Windows Live Groups d) Windows Live Hotmail Answer:a Which of the following is Web-based free e-mail service with contacts and calendar ? a) Windows Live Home b) Windows Live ID c) Windows Live Groups d) Windows Live Hotmail Answer:d Which of the following service allows you to create beautiful, memorable movies ? a) Windows Live OneCare Safety Scanner b) Windows Live ID c) Windows Live Movie Maker d) Windows Live Photos Answer:c Which of the following is a photo storage and sharing service ? a) Windows Live OneCare Safety Scanner b) Windows Live ID c) Windows Live Movie Maker d) Windows Live Photos Answer:d There are Four Scenarios in A. Servers B. Domains C. IP D. Email Answer D In File Transfer Protocol (FTP), a user needs an account (user name) and a password on the A. IP Server B. Remote Server C. Domain Server D. Data Server Answer B In EMAIL, We need two VAs and two pairs of MTAs, When sender is connected to mail server via A. MTA and VTA B. LAN and WAN C. IP and SMS D. Email and IP Answer B Mail access starts with client when user needs to download e-mail from the A. Mail Box B. Mail Server C. IP server D. Internet Answer A TELNET is a general-purpose A. client/server application program B. host/server application program C. remote system D. terminal emulator Answer A Some examples of command-driven user agents are A. mail B. pine C. elm D. All of them Answer D When sender and receiver of an e-mail are on same system, we need only two A. IP B. Domain C. Servers D. User Agents Answer D DOS operating system is Curlz, while UNIX operating system recognizes A. Curls B. Ctrl+v C. Ctrl+u D. Ctrl+d Answer D Most TELNET implementations operate in one of modes A. default mode B. character mode C. line mode D. All of them Answer D Some examples of command-driven user agents are mail, pine, and A. elm B. ilm C. ulm D. alm Answer A Propagation time is equals to A. Distance/Propagation speed B. Propagation speed/Bandwidth C. Message size/ Bandwidth D. Bandwidth/Queuing time Answer A Period is inverse of A. Frequency B. Phase C. Amplitude D. Signals Answer A Black and white TV is an example of A. non periodic composite signal B. periodic composite signal C. signal D. periodic signal Answer A Level of signal is inversely proportional to the A. Reliability of a system B. Efficiency of a system C. Accuracy of a system D. Bandwidth of a system Answer A Nyquist formula gives us any signal level while Shannon capacity gives us the A. Lower Limit B. Upper Limit C. Specific signal level D. any signal level Answer B INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS Which of the following factors are deemed to be important considerations for evaluating cloud solutions ? a) Seamless maintenance and upgrades b) Performance characteristics c) Client self-service d) All of the mentioned Answer:d Point out the correct statement: a) QoS levels may be applied to different services against a single virtual storage container b) An SLA might specify that a particular Quality of Service (QoS) for a virtual storage container may be measured in terms of the I/O per second c) To provide for scaling, a virtual storage container must be easily migrated from one storage system to another d) All of the mentioned Answer:d Which of the following figure is correct according to categories shown ? a) b) c) d) All of the mentioned Answer:b 4. How many categories of backup exist in cloud storage ? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) None of the mentioned Answer:d Point out the wrong statement: a) To scale in, the service must allow for stored data to span additional storage systems b) To scale up, the service must allow for more disks and more spindles to be provisioned c) To increase the capacity of a storage provision, it is necessary to provide the capability to scale up or scale out across storage systems d) None of the mentioned Answer:a Which of the following is not a backup category ? a) Full system backup b) Half system backup c) Image backup d) All of the mentioned Answer:b Which of the following backup is also referred to as snapshots ? a) Point-in-time b) Differential c) Image backup d) All of the mentioned Answer:a Which of the following software supplies full system backup ? a) Carbonite b) Ghost c) RDIFF-BACKUP d) All of the mentioned Answer:b Which of the following backup lets you restore your data to a point in time and saves multiple copies of any file that has been changed ? a) Point-in-time b) Differential c) Reverse backup d) None of the mentioned Answer:a The amount of time needed to backup a system is referred to as its: a) backup time b) backup sheet c) backup window d) All of the mentioned Answer:c CHALLENGING QUESTIONS What is Cloud Computing replacing? A. Corporate data centres B. Expensive personal computer hardware C. Expensive software upgrades D. All of the mentioned Ans:D What is the number one concern about cloud computing? A. Too expensive B. Security concerns C. Too many platforms D. Accessibility ANS:B Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud computing? A. Google B. Amazon C. Blackboard D. Microsoft ANS:C Google Docs is a type of cloud computing. A. True B. False ANS:A Which one of these is not a cloud computing pricing model? A. Free B. Pay Per Use C. Subscription D. Ladder E. Perpetual License ANS:D Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage? A. Hardware as a Service B. Platform as a Service C. Software as a Service D. Infrastructure as a Service ANS:A An Internet connection is necessary for cloud computing interaction. A. True B. False ANS:A Which is not a major cloud computing platform? A. Google 101 B. IBM Deep blue C. Microsoft Azure D. Amazon EC2 ANS:B “Cloud” in cloud computing represents what? A. Wireless B. Hard drives C. People D. Internet ANS:D Which of these should a company consider before implementing cloud computing technology? A. Employee satisfaction B. Potential cost reduction C. Information sensitivity D. All of the above ANS:D What exactly is cloud computing? A. A way to organize desktop computers B. Lightweight software that takes up little space on a hard drive C. Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like electricity from a utility D. The World Wide Web Ans: C. What widely used service is built on cloud-computing technology? A. Twitter B. Skype C. Gmail D. All of the above Ans: D Which of these techniques is vital for creating cloud-computing centres? A. Virtualization B. Transubstantiation C. Cannibalization D. Insubordination Ans: A 14. An internal cloud is… A. An overhanging threat B. A career risk for a CIO C. A cloud that sits behind a corporate firewall D. The group of knowledge workers who use a social network for water-cooler gossip Ans: C. Match the provider with the cloud-based service. A. Amazon1. Azure B. IBM2. Elastic Compute Cloud C. EMC3. Decho D. Microsoft4. Cloudburst ANS: A Cloud computing embraces many concepts that were previously touted as the next big thing in information technology. Which of these is not an antecedent of the cloud? A. Software as a service B. Utility computing C. Remote hosted services D. Desktop computing Ans: D IBM, EMC and Boeing Co. were among the companies signing what document whose title is reminiscent of a famous political statement? A. Declaration of Cloud Computing B. The Rights of Cloud C. Mein Cloud D. Open Cloud Manifesto Ans: D. The term “cloud computing” is a metaphor that originated in what? A. Graphical depiction of computer architectures B. Meteorological symbolism C. Worries about an unclear future for computing architectures D. The idea that computer users trust in magic Ans: A Link the cloud-based service on the left with the desktop or server application it is designed to displace on the right. A. Google Docs1. Intel servers B. S2. Microsoft Office C. M3. Oracle customer-relationship management D. Amazon EC24. Backup disk Ans: A What August event was widely seen as an example of the risky nature of cloud computing? A. Spread of Conficker virus B. Gmail outage for more than an hour C. Theft of identities over the Internet D. Power outages in the Midwest Ans: B Networking infrastructure, which can be scaled to 100,000 ports or 1 petabyte/sec of A. Sharding B. Power data unit C. Power distribution unit D. Bisection bandwidth Answer D In addition to power-supply, Barroso and H A. Sharding B. Airside economization C. Energy proportionality D. Bisection bandwidth Answer C A server at 10% load is having 308 watts power and at 50% load is having 451 watts of power, saving is A. 2.1 B. 2.4 C. 3.4 D. 5.4 Answer C Which of the following should be replaced with question mark in the figure shown below ? a) SMTP b) HTTP c) SIP d) None of the mentioned Answer:c Point out the correct statement: a) SHOUT cast is best known for its SHOUT cast Radio b) SHOUT cast is a proprietary server solution for streaming media on the Internet c) NPR started out providing RealAudio files for streaming and then added Windows Media files as a second format d) All of the mentioned Answer:d Which of the following is the most commonly used VoIP standard ? a) SDP b) IMS c) SIP d) None of the mentioned Answer:b Which of the following is more light weight protocol among listed below ? a) H.323 b) MGCP c) SIP d) All of the mentioned Answer:c Point out the wrong statement: a) H.323 is used on short transmission lines b) POTS is also referred to as the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) c) The ITU-T is the standards body for PSTN d) None of the mentioned Answer:a The Skype protocol is a proprietary (closed-source) protocol, parts of which use the Global Index protocol. a) C2C b) P2P c) RTCP d) None of the mentioned Answer:b Which of the following encryption method or algorithm is used in Skype communication ? a) AES b) DES c) SHA d) None of the mentioned Answer:a Which of the following feature is supported by Skype application ? a) Message logging b) Instant messaging c) File transfers d) All of the mentioned Answer:d How many streaming service does Google have which uses VoIP protocols ? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) All of the mentioned Answer:a Google Talk is a service that uses the protocol for the Google Chat IM client. a) QuickTime b) Jabber c) Jaspersoft d) None of the mentioned Answer:b TOPIC 1: TRANSPORT PROTOCOLS MCQs EASY QUESTIONS TCP is a protocol. A. stream-oriented B. message-oriented C. block-oriented D. packet-oriented ANSWER: Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol. A. Physical layer B. link layer C. network layer D. transport layer. ANSWER: TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a .... A. user datagram B. segment C. datagram D. packet ANSWER: The of TCP/IP protocol is responsible for figuring out how to get data to its destination. A. application layer B. link layer C. network layer D. transport layer. ANSWER: TCP is a(n) transport protocol. A. protocol delivery B. reliable C. best-effort delivery D. effortless delivery ANSWER: ......... is the protocol that hides the underlying physical network by creating a virtual network view. A. Internet Protocol(IP) B. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) C. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP) D. Bootstrap Protocol(BOOTP) ANSWER: To use the services of UDP, we need socket addresses. A. four B. two C. three D. four ANSWER: Which of the following is not the name of Regional Internet Registries(RIR) to administer the network number portion of IP address. A. American Registry for Internet Numbers(ARIN) B. Reseaux IP Europeans(RIPE) C. Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers(ERIN) D. Asia Pacific Network Information Center(APNIC) ANSWER: UDP packets are called ....... A. user datagrams B. segments C. frames D. packets ANSWER: ............ addresses use 21 bits for the Network and 8 bits for the portion of the IP address for TCP/IP network. A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D ANSWER: UDP packets have fixed-size header of bytes. A. 16 B. 8 C. 32 D. 64 ANSWER: .......... messages are never sent in response to datagrams with a broadcast or a multicast destination address. A. ICMP B. ARP C. IP D. BOOTP ANSWER: TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence number for each segment is number of the byte carried in that segment. A. first B. last C. middle D. zero ANSWER: .......... is responsible for converting the higher level protocol address (IP addresses) to physical network addresses. A. Internet Protocol (IP) B. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) C. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP) D. Bootstrap Protocol(BOOTP) ANSWER: UDP and TCP are both layer protocols. A. data link B. network C. transport D. interface ANSWER: ........... is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from upper layer. A. TCP B. UDP C. IP D. ARP ANSWER: Which of the following functions does UDP perform? A. Process-to-process communication B. Host-to-host communication C. End-to-end reliable data delivery D. Interface-to-interface communication. ANSWER: A port address in TCP/IP is bits long. A. 32 B. 48 C. 16 D. 64 ANSWER: When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, ..... A. delivery is complete B. a transport layer protocol takes over C. a header is added D. a session layer protocol takes over ANSWER: 20) TCP/IP is a hierarchical protocol suite developed before the OSI model. A. seven-layer B. five-layer C. six-layer D. four-layer Answers: 1) A. stream-oriented 2) A. Physical layer 3) B. segment 4) C. network layer 5) B. reliable 6) A. Internet Protocol(IP) 7) B. two 8) C. Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers(ERIN) 9) A. user datagrams 10) C. Class C 11) B. 8 12) A. ICMP 13) A. first 14) C. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP) 15) C. transport 16) B. UDP 17) A. Process-to-process communication 18) C. 16 19) B. a transport layer protocol takes over 20) B. five-layer INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS UDP needs the address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application process A. port B. application C. internet D. intranet ANSWER: The was originally developed as a mechanism to enable disk-less hosts to be remotely booted over a network as workstations, routers, terminal concentrators and so on. A. ICMP B. BOOTP C. UDP D. ARP ANSWER: Which of the following does UDP guarantee? A. Flow control B. Connection-oriented delivery C. Data control D. None of the answer ANSWER: .......... provides a framework for passing configuration information to hosts on a TCP/IP network. A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) C. Internet Protocol (IP) D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) ANSWER: The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines ......... A. the sending computer B. the receiving computer C. the process running on the sending computer D. the process running on the receiving computer ANSWER: The mechanisms supported by DHCP for IP address allocation on a TCP/IP network is/are ... A. Automatic allocation B. Dynamic allocation C. Manual allocation D. All of them ANSWER: UDP is called a transport protocol. A. connection-oriented, unreliable B. connectionless, reliable C. connectionless, unreliable D. connection, reliable ANSWER: DHCP in TCP/IP network assigns an IP address for a limited period of time. Such a network address is called a ...... A. lease B. limited network C. timed network D. assigned network ANSWER: UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing communication. A. node to node B. process to process C. host to host D. interface to interface ANSWER: The use of allows centralized configuration of multiple clients. A. ICMP B. BOOTP C. UDP D. ARP ANSWER: UDP is an acronym for ............ A. User Delivery Protocol B. User Datagram Procedure C. User Datagram Protocol D. User Delivery Procedure ANSWER: ............ is where users typically interact with the TCP/IP network. A. Link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Application layer ANSWER: The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers called ......... A. UDP addresses B. transport addresses C. port addresses D. TCP addresses ANSWER: The is responsible for communicating with the actual network hardware. A. Link layer B. Network layer C. Transport layer D. Application layer ANSWER: UDP packets are encapsulated in ....... A. an Ethernet frame B. a TCP segment C. an IP datagram D. an Ethernet packets ANSWER: ............ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. A. TCP/IP B. NCP C. UDP D. ACM ANSWER: UDP uses to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on one host. A. flow control B. multiplexing C. de-multiplexing D. data control ANSWER: .......... provides full transport layer services to applications. A. TCP B. UDP C. IP D. ARP ANSWER: UDP uses to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different processes on the same host. A. flow control B. multiplexing C. de-multiplexing D. data control ANSWER: In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the layer. A. application B. transport C. IP D. interface ANSWER: CHALLENGING QUESTIONS Which among the following are delivered by the transport layer in process-to-process delivery mechanism? a. Frames b. Datagrams c. Packets d. All of the above ANSWER: c. Packets Which among the following are uncontrolled and un-registered form of ephemeral ports in accordance to IANA? a. Well known Ports b. Registered Ports c. Dynamic Ports d. All of the above ANSWER: c. Dynamic Ports What is the purpose of using source & destination port numbers respectively in the addressing method of transport layer? a. For Delivery & Reply operations b. For Reply & Delivery operations c. Only for Delivery operations d. Only for Reply operations ANSWER: b. For Reply & Delivery operations Which among the several transport services deals with the addresses, protocol utility class in addition to performance evaluating features of a connection? a. Connection Management b. Quality of Service c. User Interface d. Status Reporting ANSWER: d. Status Reporting Which mechanism/s is/are extremely essential in data link and transport layers in accordance to operational services offered by the transport protocols? a. Buffering b. Flow Control c. Both a & b d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Both a & b Which among the below specified design issues should not be minimized while designing the system of a computer network? a. Bandwidth b. Content Switching c. Software Overhead d. All of the above ANSWER: a. Bandwidth Which TCP timer signifies its contribution in measuring the time of connection maintenance in TIME_WAIT state? a. Keep alive Timer b. Persist Timer c. Retransmission Timer d. 2 Maximum Segment lifetime Timer ANSWER: d. 2 Maximum Segment lifetime Timer Which among the following specifies the impossibility of updating RTT estimator during the arrival acknowledgement of retransmitted data especially at the occurrence of timeout and retransmission phases in TCP? a. NAGLE algorithm b. Karn's algorithm c. Clark's Solution d. None of the above ANSWER: b. Karn's algorithm Which mechanism in transport layer supplies multiple network connections along with the distribution of traffic over them in a round-robin basis/ fashion? a. Upward Multiplexing b. Downward Multiplexing c. Buffering & Flow Control d. Crash Recovery ANSWER: b. Downward Multiplexing STUB is a technique utilized in the client-server operation especially for implementation of a. RPC b. RTP c. RTCP d. All of the above ANSWER: a. RPC Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to a) network layer b) data link layer c) application layer d) physical layer Answer:a Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in internet? a) TCP b) UDP c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned Answer: c 3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer b) it sends data as a stream of related packets c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned Answer: a 4. Transmission control protocol is a) connection oriented protocol b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection c) receives data from application as a single stream d) all of the mentioned Answer: d An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called a) socket b) pipe c) port d) none of the mentioned Answer: a Socket-style API for windows is called a) wsock b) winsock c) wins d) none of the mentioned Answer: b Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control? a) datagram congestion control protocol b) stream control transmission protocol c) structured stream transport d) none of the mentioned Answer: a A is a TCP name for a transport service access point. a) port b) pipe c) node d) none of the mentioned Answer: a Transport layer protocols deals with a) application to application communication b) process to process communication c) node to node communication d) none of the mentioned Answer: b Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol? a) stream control transmission protocol b) internet control message protocol c) neighbour discovery protocol d) dynamic host configuration protocol Answer: a A connectionless protocol treats each segment A. Freely B. Independently C. Separately D. Closely Answer C In transport layer, a message is normally divided into transmittable A. Segments B. Signals C. Networks D. Paths Answer A Each segment as an independent packet and delivers it to transport layer at destination machine is called A. Connection Oriented B. connectionless C. Segmentation D. Reassembly Answer B Transport layer may be responsible for flow and error Control, like the A. IP Link Layer B. Data Link Layer C. Subnet Layer D. Linear Layer Answer B Transport layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery of the A. Message B. Entire Message C. Half Message D. Partial Message Answer B In User Datagram Protocol (UDP), checksum calculation is different from one for IP and A. TCP B. TCP/IP C. UDP D. ICMP Answer D In User Datagram Protocol (UDP), queues are associated with A. Slots B. IP C. Ports D. Packets Answer C In User Datagram Protocol, we use term which received datagram back to sender is called A. Protocol B. Packet C. Path D. Echo Answer D User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is providing services of IP is A. Host-to-Host B. IP-to-IP C. Process-to-Process D. Connection-to Connection Answer C TFTP stands for A. Trivial File Transfer Path B. Trivial File Transfer Packet C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol D. Trivial File Transformed Protocol Answer C Topic 2: NAME RESOLUTION Easy Questions Domain Name System (DNS), can be pictured as an inverted hierarchical tree structure with one root node at top and a maximum of a.128 Levels b.129 Levels c.130 Levels d.131 Levels Answer A Name of domain is domain name of node at top of the a.Sub Tree b.Main Tree Last Tree Bottom Tree Answer A Domain, which is used to map an address to a name is called Generic Domains Inverse Domain Small Domains Sub-Domains Answer B Term that define registered hosts according to their generic behaviour, is called Generic Domains Main Domains Small Domains Sub-Domains Answer A DNS client adds suffix . Before passing address to the DNS Host DNS Server DNS Label DNS Recipient Answer B Well-known port used for encapsulation by server is A. port 7 B. port 23 C. port 53 D. port 67 Answer C Each node in tree has a A. primary server B. domain name. C. DNS tree D. All of them Answer B Two types of records are used in DNS those are A. Question Record B. Answers Record C. Resource Record D. both a and c Answer D In Domain Name, a full domain name always ends up at A. Node B. Separated Node C. Dull Node D. Null Node Answer D Domain Name System (DNS), is a protocol that can be used in different A. Servers B. Internet C. Platform D. Stages Answer C In Internet, domain name tree is divided into three A. Different Stages B. Different Junctions C. Different Servers D. Different Sections Answer D Domain Name System (DNS), can use services of UDP or TCP using the A. well-known port 53 B. well-known port 54 C. well-known port 55 D. well-known port 56 Answer A How are new domains added to DNS? This is done through a A. Query B. Registrar C. Domains D. Servers Answer B FQDN stands for A. Filled Quality Domain Name B. False Quality Domain Name C. Fully Qualified Domain Name D. First Qualified Domain Name Answer C X is a A. PQDN B. FQDN C. DDNS D. All of them Answer A A supporting program that is used by other programs such as e-mail is called A. DNS B. SMTP C. IP D. Server Answer A In Domain Name System (DNS), solution to these problems is to distribute information among many computers, called A. DNS Host B. DNS Server C. DNS Label D. DNS Recipient Answer B Country domains section uses two-character country A. Generations B. Abbreviations C. Notations D. Zones Answer B A registrar first verifies that requested domain name is unique and then enters it into DNS A. Database B. Servers C. Domains D. IP Answer A In Domain Name System (DNS), a contiguous part of entire tree is called A. Host B. Server C. Domain D. Zone Answer D In Domain Name System (DNS), there are many registrars; their names and addresses can be found at A. B. C. D. Answer A A server whose zone consists of whole tree is called A. Root Server B. Sub Server C. IP Server D. Host Server Answer A A root server's zone is entire A. STP Tree B. DNS Tree C. Hosted Tree D. Small Tree Answer B If server has information, it satisfies the A. Host B. Server C. IP D. Resolver Answer D Domain Name System (DNS), allows domains to be divided further into A. Large Domains B. Thick Domains C. Small Domains D. Sub-Domains Answer C A Domain Name Space (DNS), client/server program can support an e-mail program to find IP address of an A. E-Mail Server B. DNS Server C. Email Recipient D. DNS Recipient Answer C Mapping a name to an address or an address to a name is called name-address A. Generations B. Abbreviations C. Resolutions D. Information's Answer C In Domain Name System (DNS), a section consisting of one or more resource records is called A. Question Records B. Sheet Records C. Paper Records D. Answer Records Answer D To provide security and prevent unauthorized changes in DNS records an authentication mechanism can use called A. DNS B. DDNS C. DDN D. SDN Answer B A primary server loads all information from the A. IP File B. Disk File C. Host IP D. Host Server Answer B In Domain Name Space (DNS), when Internet was small, mapping was done by using a A. IP File B. Host File C. Host IP D. Host Server Answer B In Domain Name Space, null suffix defines A. IP B. Server C. Host D. Nothing Answer D Information contained in domain name space must be A. Divided B. Shared C. Stored D. Noted Answer C In Domain Name Space, if a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a A. Partially Qualified Domain Name B. Partially Qualified Domain Node C. Partially Qualified Domain Notes D. Partially Qualified Domain Names Answer A Each name is made of several parts in A. Name Space B. Domain Name Space C. Hierarchical Name Space D. Flat Name Space Answer C Main disadvantage of a fiat name space is that it cannot be used in a large A. IP B. Internet C. Email D. System Answer D A root server is a server whose zone consists of the A. subdomains B. Zone C. whole tree D. DNS servers Answer C In Domain Name, a full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by A. Dots B. Lines C. Box D. Circle Answer A Domain names are always read from the A. node up to root B. any node to root C. root to bottom D. All of them Answer A A root server usually does not store any information about domains but delegates its authority to the A. Main Server B. Sub Server C. Other Server D. Host Server Answer C Generic domains, for specifying an organization type are A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 14 Answer D A domain name is . Is A. City domain B. generic domain C. country domain D. None Answer B There are two types of records in A. SMTP B. ICMP C. DNS D. Servers Answer C A name is assigned to an address in A. Name Space B. Domain Name Space C. Flat Name Space D. Hard Name Space Answer C A domain is a sub tree of the A. domain name space B. PQDN C. FQDN D. DNS Answer A Intermediate Questions In Domain Name System (DNS), server makes a database called A. Zone IP B. Zone File C. Zone Domain D. Zone Server Answer B If size of response message is more than 512 bytes, a Connection is used called A. DNS B. ICMP C. STMP D. TCP Answer D Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), contains name of the A. IP B. Host C. Node D. Roots Answer B Domain Name System (DNS), has two types of messages A. Small and Large B. Hosted and Generic C. Query and Responsive D. Resolver and Informative Answer C In Domain Name System (DNS), header has A. 08 Bytes B. 12 Bytes C. 14 Bytes D. 24 Bytes Answer B Each node in tree has a label, which is a string with a maximum of A. 38 characters B. 47characters C. 52 characters D. 63 characters Answer D DDNS stands for A. Dynamic Domain Name Solution B. Dynamic Domain Name Server C. Dynamic Domain Name System D. Dynamic Domain Name Section Answer C System in which names are defined in an inverted-tree structure with root at top is called A. Name Space B. Domain Name Space C. Hierarchical Name Space D. Flat Name Space Answer B First address part can define the A. name of an organize- tin B. nature of organization C. departments in organization D. All of them Answer B X. Is a A. FQDN B. PQDN C. DDNS D. None Answer A If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a A. PQDN B. FQDN C. DNS D. None Answer B The entire hostname has a maximum of a) 255 characters b) 127 characters c) 63 characters d) 31 characters Answer:a A DNS client is called a) DNS updater b) DNS resolver c) DNS handler d) none of the mentioned Answer:b Servers handle requests for other domains a) directly b) by contacting remote DNS server c) it is not possible d) none of the mentioned Answer:b DNS database contains a) name server records b) hostname-to-address records c) hostname aliases d) all of the mentioned Answer:d If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then a) server asks to the root server b) server asks to its adjcent server c) request is not processed d) none of the mentioned Answer:a Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address change? a) dynamic DNS b) mail transfer agent c) authoritative name server d) none of the mentioned Answer:a Wildcard domain names start with label a) @ b) * c) & d) # Answer:b The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by a) internet architecture board b) internet society c) internet research task force d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers Answer:d The domain name system is maintained by a) distributed database system b) a single server c) a single computer d) none of the mentioned Answer:a Challenging Questions What is the basic function of the nslookup program? A. To probe the DNS database for various types of information B. To look up only IP addresses in the DNS database C. To look up only domain names in the DNS database D. To look up only SOA records from a company’s database Ans: A What file does the nslookup program use to locate a name server? A. The /etc/ file B. The /var/log/messages file C. The /etc/hosts file D. The /etc/ file Ans: D Besides the name server process, what are the other parts of the BIND package? A. The /etc/ file B. The /etc/hosts file C. The name server data files D. The /etc/ file Ans: A,C What is the function of the directory directive in the name server configuration file? A. To declare the server as an authoritative server for a zone B. To establish the origin domain and name of the root cache file C. To establish an initial path for later file references D. To declare the server as a secondary server for a zone Ans: C For what purpose is the BIND root cache file used? A. To serve as a zone file for the loopback address B. To provide zone files for authoritative servers C. To serve as a configuration file for the name server D. To prime the name server with the root server’s addresses Ans: D What command would you use to direct nslookup to use a server other than the one specified in /etc/? A. ls B. server C. set type D. set server Ans: B What command would you use to direct nslookup to extract the SOA and HINFO records? A. ls B. server C. set type D. extract Ans: C How can PNRP names be protected from spoofing or poisoning? A. with digital signatures B. in perimeter networks C. Pointer (PTR) records D. in a highly-secure environment Ans: A What is the most common record type in DNS? A. name records B. reverse lookup C. Host (A) records D. Ans: C In what format are IPv6 addresses usually displayed? A. canonical name (CNAME) B. Host (A) records C. the Mail exchanger (MX) record D. in hexadecimal format Ans: D When a DNS server resolves a host name to an IP address, what is the process called? A. forward lookup B. Resolution C. Reverse lookup d. recursive lookup Ans: A What DNS record type is responsible for resolving host names to IP addresses? a. A c. NS b. MX d. SOA Ans: A What DNS record type points to a mail server on a domain? A. A B. NS C. MX D. SOA Ans: C What DNS record type holds the IP address of a DNS server with information about the domain? a. CNAME b. NS c. MX d. SOA Ans: B What is the part of the DNS namespace for which a DNS server is responsible? a. zone b. SOA c. PTR d.